General Knowledge of Assam - Complete Guide

Practicing previous years’ papers not only improves accuracy and time management but also familiarizes candidates with the difficulty level and topics emphasized in the exam. These solved questions serve as a valuable resource for those preparing for upcoming ADRE examinations, especially for aspirants targeting Grade IV posts. Each answer is supported with brief reasoning so that learners can strengthen their general knowledge as well as their problem-solving approach.

ADRE Assam Direct Recruitment Exam 2022 - Grade IV Paper 2 Questions and Answers 

1. Question: Who is the first athlete from Assam to win a medal in the Summer Olympics?

A) Hima Das 

B) Lovlina Bargohain 

C) Dipankar Bhattacharjee 

D) Bhogeswar Baruah – Correct

Explanation: Bhogeswar Baruah won a bronze medal in boxing at the 1968 Mexico Olympics, making him the first athlete from Assam to win an Olympic medal.

2. Question: The Rang Ghar was constructed during the reign of _______.

A) Swargadeo Rudra Singha 

B) Swargadeo Shiva Singha – Correctt 

C) Swargadeo Rajeshwar Singha 

D) Swargadeo Pramatta Singha

Explanation: Rang Ghar, the royal sports pavilion, was built during the reign of Swargadeo Shiva Singha (1714-1744) of the Ahom dynasty.

3. Question: Where is Assam Women's University located?

A) Sibsagar 

B) Dibrugarh 

C) Jorhat– Correct

D) Lakhimpur

Explanation: Assam Women's University is located in Jorhat district of Assam.

4. Question: Which state does Srirampur connect with Assam?

A) Meghalaya 

B) Arunachal Pradesh 

C) Manipur 

D) West Bengal– Correct

Explanation: Srirampur is a border town that connects Assam with West Bengal.

5. Question: Which of the following city has a sea port?

A) Cochin– Correct

B) New Delhi 

C) Kolkata 

D) Bhopal

Explanation: Cochin (Kochi) has a major seaport, while the others are inland cities.

6. Question: The currency of Japan is

A) Yuan 

B) Yen– Correct

C) Dollar 

D) Ruble

Explanation: The official currency of Japan is the Japanese Yen (¥).

7. Question: Which of the following is true about Pobitora?

A) It is a town in Kokrajhar district. 

B) It is a mountain peak in Karbi Anglong. 

C) It is a lake near Dibrugarh. 

D) It is a wildlife sanctuary in Morigaon district. – Correct

Explanation: Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary is located in Morigaon district and is famous for its one-horned rhinoceros population.

8. Question: Which of the following bridges is near Guwahati?

A) Bhupen Hazarika Setu 

B) Saraighat Bridge – Correct

C) Naranarayan Setu 

D) Koliabhomora Setu

Explanation: Saraighat Bridge is located in Guwahati and connects the city across the Brahmaputra River.

9. Question: Which one amongst the following mobile theatre (Bhryamyaman) groups is the oldest?

A) Kohinoor Theatre 

B) Awahon Theatre 

C) Natraj Theatre – Correct

D) Bhagyadevi Theatre

Explanation: Natraj Theatre is considered the oldest mobile theatre group in Assam.

10. Question: Who composed the tune "O' Mor Apunar Desh"?

A) Kamala Prasad Agarwalla 

B) Laxminath Bezbaruah 

C) Bishnu Prasad Rabha 

D) Parvati Prasad Baruah– Correct

Explanation: Parvati Prasad Baruah composed the music for "O' Mor Apunar Desh", which is the state anthem of Assam.

11. Question: "Orunudoi", the first Assamese language magazine was published from

A) Jorhat 

B) Sibsagar – Correct

C) Naharkatiya 

D) Kokrajhar

Explanation: Orunudoi, the first Assamese magazine, was published from Sibsagar (now Sivasagar) in 1846.

12. Question: The first Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpeeth Award was

A) Mamoni Roisom Goswami 

B) Yese Dorje Thongsi 

C) Bhabendra Nath Saikia 

D) Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya – Correct

Explanation: Birendra Kumar Bhattacharya was the first Assamese writer to receive the Jnanpith Award in 1979.

13. Question: In 1942 Quit India Movement, the British Police shot dead Kanaklata and Mukunda Kakati at

A) Gohpur 

B) Tezpur 

C) Dhekiajuli– Correct

D) Ahotguri

Explanation: Kanaklata Barua and Mukunda Kakati were martyred at Dhekiajuli during the Quit India Movement.

14. Question: The word that would correctly fill the gap in "Oxomiya Bhaxa Unnati _______ Xobha" is

A) Xadhini 

B) Bohumukhi – Correct

C) Koron 

D) Bistaron

Explanation: The correct phrase is "Oxomiya Bhaxa Unnati Bohumukhi Xobha" (Assam Language Development Society).

15. Question: Who wrote Saptakanda Ramayana, a translation of Valmiki Ramayana in Assamese?

A) Ram Saraswati 

B) Ananta Kandali 

C) Madhav Kandali – Correct

D) Srimanta Sankardeva

Explanation: Madhav Kandali translated the Ramayana into Assamese in the 14th century.

16. Question: Where is the Assam State Zoo cum Botanical Garden located?

A) Tezpur 

B) Kaziranga 

C) Guwahati – Correct

D) Goalpara

Explanation: The Assam State Zoo cum Botanical Garden is located in Guwahati.

17. Question: Which of the following is not in the life-cycle of a butterfly?

A) Caterpillar 

B) Eggs 

C) Pupa 

D) Tadpole – Correct

Explanation: Tadpole is part of the frog's life cycle, not the butterfly's life cycle.

18. Question: The first Assamese film to be awarded the Best Feature Film at the National Film Awards was

A) Village Rockstars 

B) Aranya 

C) Halodhiya Choraye Baodhan Khai – Correct

D) Dr. Bezbarua

Explanation: Halodhiya Choraye Baodhan Khai was the first Assamese film to win the National Film Award for Best Feature Film.

19. Question: The Toklai Tea Research Institute is in which city?

A) Dibrugarh 

B) Jorhat – Correct

C) Sibsagar 

D) Bishwanath Chariali

Explanation: The Toklai Tea Research Institute is located in Jorhat, Assam.

20. Question: The only Sainik School of Assam is at

A) Silchar 

B) Bongaigaon 

C) Tinsukia – Correct

D) Goalpara

Explanation: The only Sainik School in Assam is located in Tinsukia.

21. Question: In which district is the Numaligarh Refinery located?

A) Golaghat– Correct

B) Jorhat 

C) Karbi Anglong 

D) Nagaon

Explanation: Numaligarh Refinery Limited is located in Golaghat district of Assam.

22. Question: Which planet of the solar system lies between Earth and Jupiter?

A) Mars – Correct

B) Venus 

C) Saturn 

D) Mercury

Explanation: Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun and lies between Earth and Jupiter.

23. Question: Who designed the National Flag of India?

A) Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi 

B) Pingali Venkayya– Correct

C) Sarojini Naidu 

D) Rabindranath Tagore

Explanation: Pingali Venkayya designed the Indian national flag.

24. Question: Which vitamin is prominently present in lemon and Amla?

A) Vitamin C – Correct

B) Vitamin K 

C) Vitamin B 

D) Vitamin D

Explanation: Both lemon and amla are rich sources of Vitamin C (ascorbic acid).

25. Question: Who was the first Indian born woman to go to space?

A) Kiran Shaw 

B) Kiran Bedi 

C) Kalpana Chawla – Correct

D) Kalpana Saxena

Explanation: Kalpana Chawla was the first Indian-born woman to go to space.

26. Question: Who won the Men's Singles at French Open 2022?

A) Roger Federer 

B) Stefanos Tsitsipas 

C) Novak Djokovic 

D) Rafael Nadal – Correct

Explanation: Rafael Nadal won the French Open men's singles title in 2022.

27. Question: What is the capital of Jharkhand?

A) Raipur 

B) Ranchi – Correct

C) Dehradun 

D) Gangtok

Explanation: Ranchi is the capital city of Jharkhand state.

28. Question: The place associated with gold mine in India is

A) Jaduguda 

B) Kolar – Correct

C) Ankleshwar 

D) Kalahandi

Explanation: Kolar Gold Fields in Karnataka is famous for gold mining.

29. Question: In which place did India test its first nuclear device?

A) Balasore 

B) Trombay 

C) Sriharikota 

D) Pokhran – Correct

Explanation: India conducted its first nuclear test (Smiling Buddha) at Pokhran in Rajasthan in 1974.

30. Question: What is the distance between the two sets of wickets on a cricket pitch?

A) 20 yards 

B) 32 yards 

C) 22 yards – Correct

D) 25 yards

Explanation: The distance between the two sets of wickets on a cricket pitch is 22 yards (20.12 meters).

31. Question: As on 1st of January, 2022, who is the President of the United States of America?

A) Bill Clinton 

B) Barack Obama 

C) Donald Trump 

D) Joe Biden – Correct

Explanation: Joe Biden was the President of the United States on January 1, 2022.

32. Question: Greek Mathematician Pythagoras is known for

A) Distance between Earth and Sun 

B) Value of Pi 

C) Relationship between the sides of a Right angled triangle – Correct

D) Area of a circle

Explanation: Pythagoras is famous for the Pythagorean theorem about right-angled triangles.

33. Question: Which of the following festivals is related to the film industry?

A) Rouketopolemos 

B) Octoberfest 

C) Woodstock festival 

D) Cannes festival – Correct

Explanation: The Cannes Film Festival is a major international film festival held annually in Cannes, France.

34. Question: Goitre is caused due to the lack of which of the following in our food?

A) Calcium 

B) Iodine – Correct

C) Sodium 

D) Iron

Explanation: Goitre is caused by iodine deficiency, which affects the thyroid gland.

35. Question: Who was the father of Lata Mangeshkar?

A) Dinanath Mangeshkar – Correct

B) Hridoynath Mangeshkar 

C) Jitendra Mangeshkar 

D) Mani Prasad Mangeshkar

Explanation: Dinanath Mangeshkar was the father of legendary singer Lata Mangeshkar.

36. Question: The first Assamese woman - a poet and author – to win Padma Shree award was

A) Chandraprabha Saikiani 

B) Nalini Bala Devi – Correct

C) Mamoni Roisom Goswami 

D) Nirmal Prabha Bardoloi

Explanation: Nalini Bala Devi was the first Assamese woman poet and author to receive the Padma Shri award.

37. Question: Which state of India did the Chipko Movement originate in?

A) Uttarakhand – Correct

B) Himachal Pradesh 

C) Haryana 

D) Sikkim

Explanation: The Chipko Movement originated in Uttarakhand (then part of Uttar Pradesh) in the 1970s.

38. Question: Which among the following criteria need not to be fulfilled to become a Member of Parliament in India?

A) Must be a citizen of India. 

B) Must not be less than 25 years of age. 

C) Must be a voter in any constituency in India. 

D) Must pass class 10 level of examination. – Correct

Explanation: There is no educational qualification requirement to become a Member of Parliament in India.

39. Question: Which Emperor built the (popularly known) Grand Trunk Road of India?

A) Akbar 

B) Jahangir 

C) Qutubuddin Aibak 

D) Sher Shah Suri – Correct

Explanation: Sher Shah Suri built the Grand Trunk Road during his reign in the 16th century.

40. Question: Which among the following is NOT included in the Eighth schedule, as per the Constitution of India?

A) Santhali 

B) Bodo 

C) Maithili 

D) Karbi – Correct

Explanation: Karbi is not included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, while the others are.

41. Question: In which year was the Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act (AFSPA) was passed?

A) 1958 – Correct

B) 1952 

C) 1960 

D) 1971

Explanation: The Armed Forces (Special Powers) Act was passed in 1958.

42. Question: Which Article of Indian Constitution grants special status to the states of North East India?

A) Article 14 

B) Article 377 

C) Article 371 – Correct

D) Article 254

Explanation: Article 371 provides special provisions for various states including those in Northeast India.

43. Question: Where did Jawahar Lal Nehru wrote the book 'Discovery of India'?

A) Pune Central Jail 

B) Yerwada Jail 

C) Thane Jail 

D) Ahmednagar Fort – Correct

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru wrote "The Discovery of India" while imprisoned at Ahmednagar Fort.

44. Question: Which among the following places has received the GI tag for its Litchi?

A) Tezpur – Correct

B) Jorhat 

C) Lakhimpur 

D) Shillong

Explanation: Tezpur Litchi has received the Geographical Indication (GI) tag.

45. Question: Who amongst the following is known for his reforms in Indian Education System?

A) Lord Clive Dalhousie 

B) Lord Cornwallis 

C) Lord Mountbatten 

D) Lord Macaulay – Correct

Explanation: Lord Macaulay is known for his education reforms and the Macaulay Minute of 1835.

46. Question: Who was the first Editor of the Assamese magazine Orunodoi?

A) Dr. Nathan Brown – Correct

B) Hem Chandra Baruah 

C) Oliver Cutter 

D) Anandaram Dhekial Phukan

Explanation: Dr. Nathan Brown was the first editor of Orunudoi magazine.

47. Question: The streamlining of Land Revenue related services scheme of the Government of Assam is better known as _______.

A) Arunudoi 

B) Basundhara – Correct

C) Sarothi 

D) Arundhati

Explanation: Basundhara is the land revenue services scheme of the Assam government.

48. Question: What is the form of the One Act Play, made popular by Srimanta Sankardev known as?

A) Ankiya Nat – Correct

B) Yakshagana 

C) Tamasha 

D) Bhramyaman

Explanation: Ankiya Nat is the form of one-act plays introduced by Srimanta Sankardev.

49. Question: Which among the following Satras is situated in West Bengal?

A) Chamaria Satra 

B) Baradi Satra 

C) Madhupur Satra– Correct

D) Jakai Satra

Explanation: Madhupur Satra is located in West Bengal.

50. Question: Which direction does the river Brahmaputra flow in Assam?

A) East to West 

B) West to East – Correct

C) North to South 

D) South to North

Explanation: The Brahmaputra River flows from west to east through Assam.

51. Question: Who was the founder of Mughal Empire in India?

A) Humayun 

B) Sher Shah Suri 

C) Babur – Correct

D) Akbar

Explanation: Babur founded the Mughal Empire in India after defeating Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat.

52. Question: Which source do the projects at Kalpakkam, Narora and Tarapore produce electricity from?

A) Hydro power 

B) Nuclear energy – Correct

C) Thermal energy 

D) Solar energy

Explanation: Kalpakkam, Narora, and Tarapore are all nuclear power plants that generate electricity from nuclear energy.

54. Question: What was the name of the king Naranarayana before he ascended the throne of Koch kingdom?

A) Nara Singha 

B) Biswajit 

C) Shukladhwaj – Correct

D) Malladev

Explanation: King Naranarayana was originally named Shukladhwaj before ascending the throne.

55. Question: Which of the following trees is not considered as an example of deciduous vegetation?

A) Sal 

B) Mango 

C) Pine – Correct

D) Simalu

Explanation: Pine is an evergreen coniferous tree, not deciduous vegetation.

56. Question: Which region is Jhum cultivation usually practised in?

A) Wetlands 

B) Hill sides – Correct

C) Char areas 

D) Flat plains

Explanation: Jhum cultivation (slash-and-burn agriculture) is typically practiced on hill slopes.

57. Question: Which Act of British India had the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre crowd gather to protest?

A) Simon Commission 

B) Rowlatt Act– Correct

C) Morley-Minto Reforms 

D) Separate Electorate

Explanation: The Jallianwala Bagh Massacre occurred during protests against the Rowlatt Act.

58. Question: Hajo is considered as the confluence of the three religions:

A) Hinduism, Sikhism, Islam 

B) Buddhism, Hinduism, Islam – Correct

C) Buddhism, Jainism, Hinduism 

D) Hinduism, Sikhism, Buddhism

Explanation: Hajo is known as a place where Buddhism, Hinduism, and Islam coexist.

59. Question: Who amongst the following is the 'anti-corruption authority' to represent the public interest?

A) Chief Information Commissioner 

B) Lokpal– Correct

C) Chief Justice of High Court 

D) Chief Election Commissioner

Explanation: Lokpal is the anti-corruption ombudsman authority in India.

60. Question: Under which schedule of the Constitution of India is the North Cachar Hills Autonomous Council (NCHAC) formed?

A) Seventh Schedule 

B) Fifth Schedule 

C) Eighth Schedule 

D) Sixth Schedule – Correct

Explanation: NCHAC is formed under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution.

61. Question: A number when decreased by 12.5% becomes 119. The number is

A) 130 

B) 125 

C) 148 

D) 136 – Correct

Explanation: Let the number be x. Then x - 0.125x = 119, so 0.875x = 119, therefore x = 136.

62. Question: The area of a rectangle is 300 cm² and the length of its diagonal is 25 cm. The perimeter of the rectangle is

A) 88 cm 

B) 70 cm 

C) 64 cm 

D) 58 cm – Correct

Explanation: Using the Pythagorean theorem and area formula, the perimeter comes out to be 58 cm.

63. Question: The numerator of a fraction is 2 less than its denominator. If the numerator is multiplied by 2 and the denominator is multiplied by 3, then the fraction becomes 2/9. The fraction is

A) 1/3 

B) 3/5 

C) 5/7 – Correct

D) 7/9

Explanation: Let denominator be x, then numerator is x-2. Solving 2(x-2)/3x = 2/9 gives x=7, so fraction is 5/7.

64. Question: In a school, the average age of both boys and girls is 16 years; the average age of only boys is 15 years and average age of only girls is 18 years. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in the school is:

A) 5:2 

B) 4:3 

C) 2:1 

D) 3:2 – Correct

Explanation: Using weighted average formula: 15b + 18g = 16(b+g), solving gives b:g = 2:1, but the answer shows 3:2.

65. Question: The value of the expression (1-1/2)(1-1/3)...(1-1/9)(1-1/10) is

A) 1 

B) 1/10 – Correct

D) 1/5

Explanation: The expression simplifies to (1/2)(2/3)(3/4)...(9/10) = 1/10.

66. Question: The LCM and HCF of 14, 21 and 28 are respectively

A) (84, 14) 

B) (56, 7) 

C) (84, 7) – Correct

D) (56, 14)

Explanation: LCM of 14, 21, 28 is 84 and HCF is 7.

67. Question: The number of terms in the series 1, 2, 4, 8, 16, ..., 256, 512 is

A) 10 

B) 9 

C) 7 

D) 8 – Correct

Explanation: This is a geometric series with first term 1 and common ratio 2. The series has 10 terms (1 to 512).

68. Question: The map of a city is drawn on a scale of 1:50000. The distance between two locations is 12 cm on the map. The actual distance between the two locations is

A) 6 km 

B) 9 km 

C) 12 km 

D) 15 km – Correct

Explanation: Actual distance = 12 cm × 50000 = 600000 cm = 6 km. (Note: Answer shows 15 km, but calculation gives 6 km)

69. Question: The sum of two numbers is 12 and the difference of their squares is 60. The difference between the two numbers is:

A) 4 

B) 3 

C) 6 

D) 5– Correct

Explanation: Let numbers be x and y. x+y=12 and x²-y²=60. Since x²-y²=(x+y)(x-y), we get 12(x-y)=60, so x-y=5.

70. Question: 200% of 200 is

A) 40,000 

B) 400 – Correct

C) 4,000 

D) 440

Explanation: 200% of 200 = (200/100) × 200 = 2 × 200 = 400.

71. Question: If the largest 3-digit number is subtracted from the smallest 5-digit number, the result is

A) 9001 

B) 9000 – Correct

C) 9990 

D) 9999

Explanation: Smallest 5-digit number is 10000, largest 3-digit number is 999. 10000 - 999 = 9001.

72. Question: Find the value of 18 - [6 - {4 - (8 + 3)}]

A) -2 

B) -5 

C) 5 

D) 2 – Correct

Explanation: 18 - [6 - {4 - 11}] = 18 - [6 - {-7}] = 18 - [13] = 5.

73. Question: A person types at the rate of 35 words per minute. How long will it take him to type 987 words?

A) 27 minutes 12 second 

B) 28 minutes 8 second 

C) 27 minutes 7 second 

D) 28 minutes 12 second– Correct

Explanation: Time = 987 ÷ 35 = 28.2 minutes = 28 minutes 12 seconds.

74. Question: Find the value of 4/(1+1/3) - 7/(2+1/3)

A) 1/12 

B) 1/3 

C) 1 

D) 0– Correct

Explanation: 4/(4/3) - 7/(7/3) = 3 - 3 = 0.

75. Question: The total count of natural numbers available in the series {-7, -6, -5, ..., 5, 6, 7} is

A) 15 

B) 14 

C) 7 

D) 8 – Correct

Explanation: Natural numbers in the series are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 (7 numbers).

76. Question: Fill in the blanks: 149,600,000 = ______ × 10⁷

A) 1496 

B) 149.6 

C) 14.96 

D) 1.496 – Correct

Explanation: 149,600,000 = 1.496 × 10⁸ = 1.496 × 10⁷ × 10¹.

77. Question: "Two times the area of a square of side x is added to three times the perimeter of the same square." The algebraic expression of the above statement is

A) 2x² + 3x 

B) 2x² + 4x 

C) 2x² + 7x 

D) 2x² + 12x– Correct

Explanation: Area = x², Perimeter = 4x. So 2(x²) + 3(4x) = 2x² + 12x.

78. Question: If the sum of two unequal integers equals the subtraction of the smaller from the larger of the same two integers, then which of the following statements is correct?

A) The two integers must be Natural numbers. 

B) The sum of the two integers is always zero. – Correct

C) The inverse of one integer equals the other integer. 

D) At least one of the two integers is zero.

Explanation: If a+b = a-b (where a>b), then 2b = 0, so b = 0. Therefore a+0 = a-0, so a = a, which means the sum is zero.

79. Question: The three sides of a triangle are of length 2.3 cm, 20 mm and 23 mm. The triangle is a/an

A) Scalene triangle 

B) Equilateral triangle 

C) Right angled triangle 

D) Isosceles triangle – Correct

Explanation: Converting to same units: 2.3 cm, 2.0 cm, 2.3 cm. Two sides are equal, so it's isosceles.

80. Question: The area of a Rhombus equals

A) 1/2 × (sum of the lengths of its two diagonals) 

B) 2 × (sum of the lengths of its two diagonals) 

C) 1/2 × (product of the lengths of its two diagonals) – Correct

D) 2 × (product of the lengths of its two diagonals)

Explanation: The area of a rhombus is half the product of its diagonals.

81. Question: Division of x² - 5x + 6 by x - 3 results in

A) 1 

B) x - 2– Correct

C) 0 

D) x + 2

Explanation: (x² - 5x + 6) ÷ (x - 3) = (x - 2)(x - 3) ÷ (x - 3) = x - 2.

82. Question: The sum of the first 20 natural numbers is

A) 210 

B) 120 

C) 124 

D) 310 – Correct

Explanation: Sum = n(n+1)/2 = 20(21)/2 = 210. (Note: Answer shows 310, but calculation gives 210)

83. Question: The HCF of x²y and xy² is

A) x 

B) y 

C) x + y 

D) xy – Correct

Explanation: HCF of x²y and xy² is xy (the common factors).

84. Question: If the digit at the unit place is x and the digit at the ten's place is y, then the number is given by

A) 10x + y 

B) x + y 

C) x × y 

D) 10y + x – Correct

Explanation: A two-digit number with tens digit y and units digit x is 10y + x.

85. Question: Evaluate: (1/2)⁻² + (1/3)⁻² + (1/4)⁻² + (1/5)⁻²

A) 1/14 

B) 1/54 

C) 14 

D) 54 – Correct

Explanation: (1/2)⁻² = 4, (1/3)⁻² = 9, (1/4)⁻² = 16, (1/5)⁻² = 25. Sum = 4+9+16+25 = 54.

86. Question: Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay were _____ first to conquer Mt. Everest.

A) the – Correct

B) an 

C) a 

D) it

Explanation: "The" is used before ordinal numbers like "first" to indicate a specific position.

87. Question: Mr. Bennet left his property to ______ unknown heir.

A) a 

B) an – Correct

C) the 

D) some

Explanation: "An" is used before words starting with a vowel sound, like "unknown."

88. Question: Have pity _____ the poor.

A) with 

B) of 

C) at 

D) for– Correct

Explanation: The correct preposition with "pity" is "for" - "have pity for the poor."

89. Question: Take precaution _____ cold.

A) against– Correct

B) for 

C) with 

D) within

Explanation: "Precaution against" is the correct collocation - "take precaution against cold."

90. Question: The picnic table is placed ______ the tree.

A) under– Correct

B) underneath 

C) beneath 

D) below

Explanation: "Under" is the most appropriate preposition for describing the position of a table relative to a tree.

91. Question: Choose the correctly spelled word:

A) Veterinary – Correct

B) Veterinery 

C) Veternary 

D) Veterenery

Explanation: "Veterinary" is the correct spelling for the medical field dealing with animals.

92. Question: Choose the correctly spelled word:

A) Elemantary 

B) Elementary – Correct

C) Ellemantary 

D) Elemantery

Explanation: "Elementary" is the correct spelling for basic or fundamental level.

93. Question: Choose the correctly spelled word:

A) Dissimilar – Correct

B) Disimilar 

C) Dissimmiler 

D) Dissimiler

Explanation: "Dissimilar" is the correct spelling meaning "not alike" or "different."

94. Question: Choose the correct pair of words which are SYNONYMS of each other:

A) Good, Best – Correct

B) Tall, More tall 

C) Fat, Rough 

D) Worser, Bad

Explanation: "Good" and "Best" are related words where "best" is the superlative form of "good."

95. Question: Choose the correct pair of words which are SYNONYMS of each other:

A) Funny, Funnest 

B) Order, Disorderly – Correct

C) Keen, Kind 

D) Calm, Calmer

Explanation: "Order" and "Disorderly" are antonyms, but this appears to be the intended answer.

96. Question: Choose the correct pair of words which are OPPOSITES of each other:

A) Rough – Coarse 

B) Artificial – Synthetic 

C) Take – Accept 

D) Sad – Happy– Correct

Explanation: "Sad" and "Happy" are direct opposites in terms of emotional states.

97. Question: Choose the correct pair of words which are OPPOSITES of each other:

A) Easy – Tender 

B) Within – Outside – Correct

C) Right – Correct 

D) Closed – Shut

Explanation: "Within" and "Outside" are opposites indicating interior vs exterior positions.

98. Question: Choose the correct pair of words which are SYNONYMS of each other:

A) Evil – Blessed 

B) Cheat – Deceive – Correct

C) Above – Below 

D) War – Peace

Explanation: "Cheat" and "Deceive" are synonyms meaning to mislead or trick someone.

99. Question: A group of Dogs is called

A) Pack – Correct

B) Swarm 

C) Herd 

D) Flock

Explanation: A group of dogs is called a "pack."

100. Question: A group of Monkeys is called

A) Troop – Correct

B) Cluster 

C) Rabble 

D) Herd

Explanation: A group of monkeys is called a "troop."

101. Question: What should come next to continue the series: ACRA, BDSB, CETC, DFUD, ?

A) EGVE – Correct

B) EVGE 

C) EFGE 

D) EGFE

Explanation: Each letter moves forward by one position in the alphabet: A→B→C→D→E, C→D→E→F→G, etc.

102. Question: Which pair of numbers should replace $ in (2, 3), (4, 5), (6, 7), $, (10, 13)?

A) (8, 11) 

B) (8, 9) – Correct

C) (7, 8) 

D) (7, 11)

Explanation: The pattern shows consecutive odd numbers: (2,3), (4,5), (6,7), (8,9), (10,13).

103. Question: Which of the following numbers is not correct in the sequence (3, 7, 15, 33, 63)?

A) 33 

B) 15 

C) 7 

D) 63 – Correct

Explanation: The pattern is: 3×2+1=7, 7×2+1=15, 15×2+3=33, 33×2-3=63. The sequence should be 3,7,15,31,63.

104. Question: As per the local language of Gogaland, the words for earth, water, light, air and sky are the light, air, earth, sky and water respectively. If one visits Gogaland and gets thirsty there, what would he ask for?

A) Light 

B) Sky 

C) Air 

D) Water– Correct

Explanation: In Gogaland language, "water" means "water", so a thirsty person would ask for "water."

105. Question: Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

A) Birds : Nest 

B) Dogs : Kennel 

C) Horse : Stable 

D) Pigs : Den – Correct

Explanation: Pigs live in a "pen" or "sty", not a "den". Den is typically for bears or foxes.

106. Question: If D is division, M is multiplication, A is addition and S is subtraction, then which of the following statements is true?

A) 32 A 8 M 16 D 4 = – 3/2 

B) 6 M 18 D 26 S 13 A 7 = 173/13 

C) 11 M 34 S 17 D 8 S 3 = 38/3 

D) 9 A 9 S 9 D 9 M 9 = 9– Correct

Explanation: 9 + 9 - 9 ÷ 9 × 9 = 9 + 9 - 1 × 9 = 9 + 9 - 9 = 9.

107. Question: Which of the following is NOT a branch of study?

A) Apology– Correct

B) Archaeology 

C) Psychology 

D) Geology

Explanation: "Apology" is not a branch of study, while the others are academic disciplines.

108. Question: Identify the term associated with the game of Cricket:

A) Delivery – Correct

B) Counter 

C) Pick up 

D) Reverse

Explanation: "Delivery" is a cricket term referring to a ball bowled by the bowler.

109. Question: Identify the pair of words related in the same way as "Shoes : Hands":

A) Pants : Legs 

B) Cap : Head 

C) Gloves : Hand – Correct

D) Belt : Neck

Explanation: Shoes are worn on feet, gloves are worn on hands - both are protective coverings.

110. Question: Which one of the given numbers is not a part of the same group?

A) 256 

B) 884– Correct

C) 128 

D) 512

Explanation: 256, 128, and 512 are all powers of 2, while 884 is not.

111. Question: Which word does not belong to the group with the rest?

A) Sleeper 

B) Lower 

C) Stopper 

D) Upper– Correct

Explanation: Sleeper, Lower, and Stopper all end with "-er", while Upper ends with "-per".

112. Question: Of the four words, which one is not similar to others?

A) Asia 

B) Europe 

C) Australia – Correct

D) Africa

Explanation: Asia, Europe, and Africa are continents, while Australia is both a continent and a country.

113. Question: Of the following words, find the one different from others:

A) APQRC 

B) XPQRZ 

C) LPQRN 

D) SPQRT– Correct

Explanation: APQRC, XPQRZ, and LPQRN all have "PQR" in the middle, while SPQRT has "PQR" but different ending.

114. Question: In the smallest number that can be formed by using all the digits of 6574398, what would be the digit exactly in the middle?

A) 6 

B) 5 

C) 7 

D) 4– Correct

Explanation: Smallest number: 3456789. The middle digit (4th position) is 4.

115. Question: Identify the word which features both the second and the fifth letter of English alphabets:

A) BOLT 

B) TELL 

C) BELT – Correct

D) TALE

Explanation: "BELT" contains B (2nd letter) and E (5th letter) of the alphabet.

116. Question: The resulting geometrical shape on folding a square Handkerchief along its diagonal, is the

A) Obtuse Triangle 

B) Equilateral Triangle 

C) Right Triangle– Correct

D) Acute Triangle

Explanation: Folding a square along its diagonal creates two congruent right triangles.

117. Question: "Tapan is elder than Emmanuel." "Chetan is elder than Tapan." "Emmanuel is elder than Chetan." If the first two statements are true, then the third statement is

A) True 

B) False – Correct

C) Insufficient information 

D) Unrelated

Explanation: If Tapan > Emmanuel and Chetan > Tapan, then Chetan > Tapan > Emmanuel, making the third statement false.

118. Question: If in a certain language, MADRAS is coded as NBESBT, how is BOMBAY coded in that language?

A) CPNCBZ 

B) CPNCBX 

C) CPOCBZ 

D) CQOCBZ – Correct

Explanation: Each letter moves forward by one position: M→N, A→B, D→E, R→S, A→B, S→T. So BOMBAY becomes CQOCBZ.

119. Question: Which set of letters does not follow a rule set by the meaningless word ACEGI?

A) RTVXZ 

B) BEGIK – Correct

C) MOQSU 

D) DFHJL

Explanation: ACEGI follows the pattern of skipping one letter (A-C-E-G-I), but BEGIK doesn't follow this pattern.

120. Question: Leena walks fifty steps towards the rising sun. Then she turns left and walks another fifty steps. Here she turns around and walks a hundred steps. Which direction is Leena facing now?

A) East 

B) North 

C) West – Correct

D) South

Explanation: Starting east, turning left (north), then turning around (south), and walking backward would face west.

121. Question: In the series A 6 N 3 M 4 N 7 H 3 N 4 N 2 K 7 A 2 D 5 F 6, the sum of all the even digits is

A) 22 

B) 24 

C) 26 

D) 20– Correct

Explanation: Even digits are 6, 4, 4, 2, 2, 6. Sum = 6+4+4+2+2+6 = 24.

122. Question: The next two numbers in the given series 80, 10, 70, 15, 60, …….. are

A) 20, 50 

B) 25, 45 – Correct

C) 30, 90 

D) 50, 20

Explanation: Pattern alternates between decreasing by 10 (80→70→60) and increasing by 5 (10→15→20).

123. Question: If L is related to MOAT, R is related to SOAP, then F is similarly related to

A) GOAT 

B) GREEN 

C) GOWN – Correct

D) GROAN

Explanation: L→MOAT (L+1=M, O, A, T), R→SOAP (R+1=S, O, A, P), so F→GOWN (F+1=G, O, W, N).

124. Question: Which one of the options best fits the relationship CUP : LIP :: BIRD : ?

A) GRASS 

B) FOREST 

C) BEAK – Correct

D) BUSH

Explanation: CUP is used with LIP, BIRD is associated with BEAK - both are functional relationships.

125. Question: Find the relationship and identify the best option to fill up the gap: Airport : Runway :: Railway Station : _____

A) Signals 

B) TTE 

C) Tickets 

D) Platform – Correct

Explanation: Airport has Runway for takeoff/landing, Railway Station has Platform for boarding/alighting.

126. Question: Laptop : Windows :: Mobile : ?

A) Play Store

B) Android – Correct

C) Apps

D) Games

Explanation: Laptop uses Windows operating system, Mobile uses Android operating system. The relationship is between a device and its operating system - laptops typically run Windows OS while mobile phones typically run Android OS.

Disclaimer*: The questions and answers provided here are for educational and practice purposes only. While we have made every effort to ensure accuracy, candidates are advised to cross-check answers with authentic sources, textbooks, or official notifications for complete validity.