Adre Assam Direct Recruitment Exam 2022 - Grade Iv Paper 1 Questions And Answers With Explanations

Practicing previous years’ papers not only improves accuracy and time management but also familiarizes candidates with the difficulty level and topics emphasized in the exam. These solved questions serve as a valuable resource for those preparing for upcoming ADRE examinations, especially for aspirants targeting Grade IV posts. Each answer is supported with brief reasoning so that learners can strengthen their general knowledge as well as their problem-solving approach.

ADRE Assam Direct Recruitment Exam 2022 - Grade IV Paper 1 Questions and Answers 

Question 1:

The Victoria memorial is situated in

  (A) Kolkata – Correct

  (B) New Delhi

  (C) Mumbai

  (D) Bhopal

Explanation: The Victoria Memorial is a large marble building in Kolkata, West Bengal, built between 1906 and 1921 to commemorate Queen Victoria.

Question 2:

In which track and field sports does Hima Das participate?

  (A) Triple Jump

  (B) Long distance run

  (C) Sprints, Short distance– Correct

  (D) Hurdles

Explanation: Hima Das is an Indian sprinter who specializes in short-distance running events, particularly the 400 meters and 200 meters.

Question 3:

Who was awarded the "Assam Baibhav" award in December, 2021?

  (A) Jitendra Nath Goswami

  (B) Ratan Tata – Correct

  (C) Ratan Thiam

  (D) Amalprava Das

Explanation: Ratan Tata, the former Chairman of Tata Sons, was awarded the Assam Baibhav award in December 2021, which is Assam's highest civilian honor.

Question 4:

Narendra Modi Stadium is situated in

  (A) Baroda

  (B) Surat

  (C) Mehsana

  (D) Ahmedabad – Correct

Explanation: Narendra Modi Stadium (formerly Sardar Patel Stadium) is located in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, and is the world's largest cricket stadium.

Question 5:

What does LAD stand for in MPLAD Scheme?

  (A) Local Asset Development

  (B) Local Area Development – Correct

  (C) Leading Asset Development

  (D) Local Area Distribution

Explanation: MPLAD stands for Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme, where LAD refers to Local Area Development.

Question 6:

On whose birthday is Abhiruchi Sports Day celebrated in Assam?

  (A) Bhogeswar Baruah

  (B) Monalisa Baruah (Mehta) – Correct

  (C) Hima Das

  (D) Radha Govinda Baruah

Explanation: Abhiruchi Sports Day is celebrated on the birthday of Monalisa Baruah (Mehta), a renowned Assamese athlete and sports personality.

Question 7:

Which one of the following places connect Assam with Arunachal Pradesh?

  (A) Dirak – Correct

  (B) Baxirhat

  (C) Dimapur

  (D) Jorhat

Explanation: Dirak is a border town that connects Assam with Arunachal Pradesh, serving as an important entry point between the two states.

Question 8:

Who was the first person from Assam to clear the Indian Civil Service (ICS) Examination?

  (A) Jamchonga Nampui

  (B) Anundoram Barooah – Correct

  (C) Hem Chandra Baruah

  (D) Parvati Prasad Boruah

Explanation: Anundoram Barooah was the first person from Assam to clear the Indian Civil Service (ICS) examination in 1879.

Question 9:

Who put forward the law of physics that "Every action has an equal and opposite reaction"?

  (A) Benjamin Franklin

  (B) Michael Faraday

  (C) Sir Isaac Newton– Correct

  (D) Albert Einstein

Explanation: Sir Isaac Newton formulated the third law of motion which states that "Every action has an equal and opposite reaction" as part of his three laws of motion.

Question 10:

What is the capital city of Zimbabwe?

  (A) Nairobi

  (B) Harare– Correct

  (C) Cairo

  (D) Khartoum

Explanation: Harare is the capital and largest city of Zimbabwe, located in the northeastern part of the country.

Question 11:

What is the currency of United Arab Emirates (UAE)?

  (A) Ruble

  (B) Dinar

  (C) Dirham – Correct

  (D) Shekel

Explanation: The currency of the United Arab Emirates is the UAE Dirham (AED), which is the official currency used throughout the country.

Question 12:

Between which two towns is the Naranarayan Setu situated?

  (A) Tezpur and Kaliabor

  (B) Nagaon and Jorhat

  (C) Jogighopa and Pancharatna– Correct

  (D) Dibrugarh and Dhemaji

Explanation: The Naranarayan Setu (bridge) is located between Jogighopa and Pancharatna, connecting Goalpara district with Kamrup district in Assam.

Question 13:

Who was the last king of the Ahom Kingdom?

  (A) Chandrakanta Singha

  (B) Jogeswar Singha

  (C) Kamaleswar Singha

  (D) Purandar Singha – Correct

Explanation: Purandar Singha was the last king of the Ahom Kingdom, ruling from 1833 to 1838 before the British took control of Assam.

Question 14:

Laxminath Bezbaruah's poem "O' Mor Apunar Desh" was first published in

  (A) Bahi

  (B) Orunodoi

  (C) Jonbiri

  (D) Jonaki – Correct

Explanation: Laxminath Bezbaruah's famous poem "O' Mor Apunar Desh" was first published in the literary magazine "Jonaki" in 1909.

Question 15:

Bangkok is the capital city of

  (A) South Korea

  (B) Philippines

  (C) Indonesia

  (D) Thailand – Correct

Explanation: Bangkok is the capital and most populous city of Thailand, serving as the country's political, economic, and cultural center.

Question 16:

Who was the Chief Minister of Assam immediately after Gopinath Bardoloi?

  (A) Bimala Prasad Chaliha

  (B) Sarat Chandra Singha

  (C) Bishnuram Medhi– Correct

  (D) Golap Borbora

Explanation: Bishnuram Medhi succeeded Gopinath Bardoloi as the Chief Minister of Assam, serving from 1950 to 1957.

Question 17:

Where was the first medical college of Assam established?

  (A) Jorhat

  (B) Guwahati

  (C) Silchar

  (D) Dibrugarh– Correct

Explanation: Assam Medical College, the first medical college in Assam, was established in Dibrugarh in 1947.

Question 18:

Which of the following places is adjacent to New Delhi?

  (A) Gurugram– Correct

  (B) Nandigram

  (C) Secunderabad

  (D) Dhanbad

Explanation: Gurugram (formerly Gurgaon) is adjacent to New Delhi and is part of the National Capital Region (NCR).

Question 19:

Margaret Thatcher was a former Prime Minister of

  (A) New Zealand

  (B) Canada

  (C) Israel

  (D) England – Correct

Explanation: Margaret Thatcher served as Prime Minister of the United Kingdom (England) from 1979 to 1990, becoming the first woman to hold this position.

Question 20:

The body of water between Russia and Alaska is

  (A) Panama Canal

  (B) Bering Strait – Correct

  (C) Suez Canal

  (D) Palk Strait

Explanation: The Bering Strait is the narrow body of water that separates Russia (Siberia) from Alaska (United States) in the Arctic region.

Question 21:

Which of the following is not a sea-side city of India?

  (A) Bengaluru– Correct

  (B) Chennai

  (C) Mumbai

  (D) Cochin

Explanation: Bengaluru (Bangalore) is an inland city located in the interior of Karnataka, while Chennai, Mumbai, and Cochin are all coastal cities.

Question 22:

Which of the following vehicles is exempted from NHAI Fastag Tolls?

  (A) Ambulance– Correct

  (B) Petroleum Tanker

  (C) Private vehicles of Senior citizens

  (D) Personal vehicle of Defence personnel

Explanation: Ambulances are exempted from NHAI Fastag tolls as they are emergency vehicles providing critical medical services.

Question 23:

The first modern theatre hall of Assam, the 'Baan Theatre' is located in

  (A) Guwahati

  (B) Jorhat – Correct

  (C) Tezpur

  (D) Nagaon

Explanation: The Baan Theatre, considered Assam's first modern theatre hall, is located in Jorhat and has been a significant cultural landmark.

Question 24:

Which of the following countries is in South America?

  (A) Somalia

  (B) Bolivia– Correct

  (C) Tasmania

  (D) Cambodia

Explanation: Bolivia is a landlocked country located in South America, while Somalia is in Africa, Tasmania is an Australian island, and Cambodia is in Southeast Asia.

Question 25:

In which movement during India's struggle for independence was Kanaklata Barua martyred?

  (A) Non-Cooperation

  (B) Quit India – Correct

  (C) Sepoy Mutiny

  (D) Civil Disobedience

Explanation: Kanaklata Barua was martyred during the Quit India Movement in 1942 when she was shot by British police while trying to hoist the Indian flag.

Question 26:

Who was the first Indian to go to space?

  (A) Kalpana Chawla

  (B) Vikram Sarabhai

  (C) Rakesh Sharma – Correct

  (D) Yuri Gagarin

Explanation: Rakesh Sharma was the first Indian citizen to go to space in 1984 aboard the Soviet spacecraft Soyuz T-11.

Question 27:

Where is the Assam State Museum located?

  (A) Majuli

  (B) Guwahati – Correct

  (C) Nagaon

  (D) Kohora

Explanation: The Assam State Museum is located in Guwahati and houses a rich collection of artifacts representing Assam's history, culture, and heritage.

Question 28:

Who amongst the following is a newly inducted Cabinet Minister of Assam?

  (A) Pizush Hazarika

  (B) Jayanta Malla Baruah

  (C) Ranoj Pegu – Correct

  (D) Ajanta Neog

Explanation: Ranoj Pegu is among the newly inducted Cabinet Ministers in Assam, serving in the current government.

Question 29:

In which year did Doordarshan start colour television programme in India?

  (A) 1991

  (B) 1985

  (C) 1980

  (D) 1982– Correct

Explanation: Doordarshan started its colour television programme in India in 1982, coinciding with the Asian Games held in New Delhi.

Question 30:

What is the primary product of Boeing company?

  (A) Aircrafts – Correct

  (B) Breakfast cereals

  (C) Shoes

  (D) Medicines

Explanation: Boeing is a major American multinational corporation that designs, manufactures, and sells airplanes, rotorcraft, rockets, satellites, and telecommunications equipment.

Question 31:

Which of the following is NOT an element?

  (A) Tin

  (B) Mercury

  (C) Iodine

  (D) Quartz – Correct

Explanation: Quartz is a mineral compound (silicon dioxide), not a chemical element. Tin, Mercury, and Iodine are all chemical elements found in the periodic table.

Question 32:

Which one of the following sports does not use a ball?

  (A) Golf

  (B) Lawn Tennis

  (C) Table Tennis

  (D) Badminton – Correct

Explanation: Badminton uses a shuttlecock (also called a birdie), not a ball. Golf, Lawn Tennis, and Table Tennis all use balls of different types.

Question 33:

Which of the following is celebrated on May 8 every year?

  (A) Environment Day

  (B) No Tobacco Day

  (C) Labour Day

  (D) Red Cross and Red Crescent Day – Correct

Explanation: May 8th is celebrated as World Red Cross and Red Crescent Day to honor the humanitarian work of these organizations worldwide.

Question 34:

Who was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1994 in the category of Government Service?

  (A) Arvind Kejriwal

  (B) T.N. Seshan – Correct

  (C) Dr. Kiran Bedi

  (D) Chintaman D. Deshmukh

Explanation: T.N. Seshan, former Chief Election Commissioner of India, was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 1994 for his outstanding work in government service, particularly in electoral reforms.

Question 35:

Which of the following was the first artificial satellite of India?

  (A) Bhaskara

  (B) Rohini

  (C) Aryabhatta– Correct

  (D) INSAT – IA

Explanation: Aryabhatta was India's first artificial satellite, launched on April 19, 1975, from Kapustin Yar using a Soviet Kosmos-3M launch vehicle.

Question 36:

If a person is transacting in "Taka", which country the person is in?

  (A) Nepal

  (B) Pakistan

  (C) Cambodia

  (D) Bangladesh – Correct

Explanation: Taka is the official currency of Bangladesh. The Bangladeshi Taka (BDT) is used for all transactions within Bangladesh.

Question 37:

Which country is the biggest exporter of asafoetida (hing) to India?

  (A) Spain

  (B) Mexico

  (C) Afghanistan – Correct

  (D) Russia

Explanation: Afghanistan is the largest exporter of asafoetida (hing) to India, accounting for a significant portion of India's asafoetida imports.

Question 38:

"God's Own Country" is the tagline for tourism of which state of India?

  (A) Karnataka

  (B) Jammu and Kashmir

  (C) Rajasthan

  (D) Kerala – Correct

Explanation: Kerala is famously known as "God's Own Country" and uses this tagline extensively in its tourism promotion campaigns.

Question 39:

Which state is the North Eastern Police Academy located in?

  (A) Assam

  (B) Meghalaya – Correct

  (C) Arunachal Pradesh

  (D) Manipur

Explanation: The North Eastern Police Academy (NEPA) is located in Umiam, Meghalaya, and provides training to police personnel from all northeastern states.

Question 40:

Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School is located in Mizoram at _____.

  (A) Aizawl

  (B) Lunglei

  (C) Serchhip

  (D) Vairengte– Correct

Explanation: The Counter-Insurgency and Jungle Warfare School (CIJWS) is located in Vairengte, Mizoram, and is one of the premier military training institutions in India.

Question 41:

The animal Sangai is found in

  (A) Keibul Lamjao National Park– Correct

  (B) Kaziranga National Park

  (C) Namdapha National Park

  (D) Nokrek National Park

Explanation: Sangai, also known as the Manipur brow-antlered deer, is found exclusively in Keibul Lamjao National Park in Manipur, which is the world's only floating national park.

Question 42:

Who won the Whitley Award, also known as the Green Oscar for the efforts in protecting the Greater Adjutant Stork?

  (A) Purnima Devi Barman– Correct

  (B) Jadav Payeng

  (C) Birubala Rabha

  (D) Rohit Choudhury

Explanation: Purnima Devi Barman from Assam won the Whitley Award (Green Oscar) in 2017 for her conservation efforts to protect the Greater Adjutant Stork, an endangered bird species.

Question 43:

The Right to Education Act as a Fundamental Right was enacted under _____.

  (A) Article 21 (a)– Correct

  (B) Article 25

  (C) Article 18

  (D) Article 23

Explanation: The Right to Education Act was enacted under Article 21(a) of the Indian Constitution, which guarantees free and compulsory education to all children aged 6-14 years.

Question 44:

Chanakya, the author of Arthashastra was a minister in the court of:

  (A) Ashoka

  (B) Samudragupta

  (C) Chandragupta Maurya– Correct

  (D) Bindusara

Explanation: Chanakya (also known as Kautilya) was the chief advisor and minister in the court of Chandragupta Maurya, the founder of the Mauryan Empire.

Question 45:

Who amongst the following was an explorer to visit India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq?

  (A) Fahien

  (B) Hieun Tsang

  (C) Vasco da Gama

  (D) Ibn Battuta– Correct

Explanation: Ibn Battuta, the famous Moroccan explorer, visited India during the reign of Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1325-1351) and served as a Qazi in Delhi.

Question 46:

Who is the first Law and Justice Minister of Independent India?

  (A) Vallabhbhai Patel

  (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

  (C) C. Rajagopalachari

  (D) B.R. Ambedkar– Correct

Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar served as the first Law and Justice Minister of Independent India from 1947 to 1951 and was the principal architect of the Indian Constitution.

Question 47:

The Durand Line forms the dividing border between

  (A) Pakistan and Afghanistan– Correct

  (B) Pakistan and India

  (C) India and Burma (Myanmar)

  (D) India and Bangladesh

Explanation: The Durand Line is the international border between Pakistan and Afghanistan, established in 1893 by British diplomat Sir Mortimer Durand.

Question 48:

The National Inter-School football tournament in India is played for

  (A) Durand Cup

  (B) Subroto Cup– Correct

  (C) Duleep Trophy

  (D) Irani Trophy

Explanation: The Subroto Cup is the national inter-school football tournament in India, named after Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee, the first Chief of Air Staff of the Indian Air Force.

Question 49:

The first private bank of Assam set up in the year 1926 was

  (A) Assam Co-operative Apex Bank Limited

  (B) The Gauhati Bank Limited– Correct

  (C) Assam Gramin Vikash Bank

  (D) Lakhimi Gaonlia Bank

Explanation: The Gauhati Bank Limited was the first private bank established in Assam in 1926, playing a significant role in the banking sector of the region.

Question 50:

Who holds the position of the Chairman of NITI Aayog?

  (A) Prime Minister of India – Correct

  (B) Finance Minister of India

  (C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India

  (D) Home Minister of India

Explanation: The Prime Minister of India serves as the Chairman of NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India), which replaced the Planning Commission.

Question 51:

Which form of Democracy is followed in India?

  (A) Representative Democracy

  (B) Presidential Democracy

  (C) Parliamentary Democracy – Correct

  (D) Participatory Democracy

Explanation: India follows a Parliamentary Democracy where the executive branch derives its legitimacy from and is accountable to the legislature (Parliament).

Question 52:

By which name is the river Brahmaputra known after it joins the river Ganga in Bangladesh?

  (A) Lohit

  (B) Hooghly

  (C) Padma– Correct

  (D) Siang

Explanation: After the Brahmaputra joins the Ganga in Bangladesh, the combined river is known as the Padma River, which eventually flows into the Bay of Bengal.

Question 53:

The angular distance of any place from the Prime Meridian measured towards East and West is called

  (A) Latitude

  (B) Altitude

  (C) Longitude– Correct

  (D) Amplitude

Explanation: Longitude is the angular distance of any place from the Prime Meridian (0° longitude) measured in degrees east or west, ranging from 0° to 180°.

Question 54:

Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

  (A) Hydrosphere : Water

  (B) Biosphere : Environment– Correct

  (C) Atmosphere : Air

  (D) Lithosphere : Land

Explanation: The Biosphere refers to the global ecological system integrating living organisms and their interactions with the Earth's surface, not just "Environment" which is a broader term.

Question 55:

Tsunamis are caused in the

  (A) Oceans– Correct

  (B) Deserts

  (C) High mountains

  (D) Deep forests

Explanation: Tsunamis are large ocean waves caused by underwater earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or landslides that occur in oceanic regions.

Question 56:

Which of the following words does not appear in the preamble of the Constitution of India?

  (A) Secular

  (B) Democratic

  (C) Federal– Correct

  (D) Socialist

Explanation: The word "Federal" does not appear in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, though India is a federal country. The Preamble mentions Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, and Republic.

Question 57:

The ancient tradition of exchanging goods for goods (trade without currency) is:

  (A) Paik System

  (B) Barter System – Correct

  (C) Banking System

  (D) Rayat System

Explanation: Barter System is the traditional method of exchanging goods and services directly without using money or currency as a medium of exchange.

Question 58:

The famous dish "Dal Baati Churma" is typically served in the state of:

  (A) Punjab

  (B) Rajasthan – Correct

  (C) Bihar

  (D) Odisha

Explanation: Dal Baati Churma is a traditional Rajasthani dish consisting of dal (lentils), baati (hard wheat rolls), and churma (sweet crumbled mixture).

Question 59:

Animals that feed on green plants are known as

  (A) Omnivorous

  (B) Carnivorous

  (C) Cannibals

  (D) Herbivorous– Correct

Explanation: Herbivorous animals are those that feed primarily on plants, including green vegetation, leaves, fruits, and other plant materials.

Question 60:

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution has made provisions for autonomous administration for hills and tribal regions of North East India?

  (A) Sixth Schedule – Correct

  (B) Fifth Schedule

  (C) Eighth Schedule

  (D) Ninth Schedule

Explanation: The Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution provides for autonomous administration in tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram through Autonomous District Councils.

Question 61:

If 4/5 + (-3/10) = x + 1½, then what will be the value of x?

  (A) 2

  (B) 1

  (C) –1 – Correct

  (D) –2

Explanation: 4/5 + (-3/10) = 8/10 - 3/10 = 5/10 = 1/2. So 1/2 = x + 3/2, therefore x = 1/2 - 3/2 = -2/2 = -1.

Question 62:

The circumferential length of a circle of radius 7 cm is used to construct a square. The length of the side of the square is: (Take π = 22/7)

  (A) 7 cm

  (B) 11 cm – Correct

  (C) 15 cm

  (D) 22 cm

Explanation: Circumference = 2πr = 2 × (22/7) × 7 = 44 cm. Perimeter of square = 44 cm, so side = 44/4 = 11 cm.

Question 63:

The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 25 and 2573 respectively. If one of the two numbers is 27, then the other number is

  (A) 2373

  (B) 2572

  (C) 2273

  (D) 2372 – Correct

Explanation: For two numbers a and b: HCF × LCM = a × b. So 25 × 2573 = 27 × b, therefore b = (25 × 2573)/27 = 2372.

Question 64:

If 1296 = x², then the value of x will be:

  (A) 5

  (B) 6 – Correct

  (C) 7

  (D) 8

Explanation: 1296 = x², so x = √1296 = 36. But since 36 = 6², the value of x is 6.

Question 65:

Bijit purchased an article for ₹800 and sold the article such that the gain is the 20% of its selling price. The selling price of the article is:

  (A) ₹1300

  (B) ₹1200

  (C) ₹1100

  (D) ₹1000 – Correct

Explanation: Let SP = x. Gain = 20% of SP = 0.2x. CP = SP - Gain = x - 0.2x = 0.8x = 800. So x = 800/0.8 = ₹1000.

Question 66:

A sheet of paper of thickness of 0.5 mm is repeatedly folded to fill up a gap of size 1.28 cm. The required number of folds is:

  (A) 12

  (B) 10

  (C) 8 – Correct

  (D) 7

Explanation: Each fold doubles the thickness. 1.28 cm = 12.8 mm. After n folds: thickness = 0.5 × 2ⁿ = 12.8. So 2ⁿ = 25.6, therefore n = 8.

Question 67:

A rectangle has 15 cm as its length and 150 cm² as its area. If the area is increased to 1⅓ times the original area by increasing its length only, the new perimeter will be

  (A) 50 cm

  (B) 60 cm

  (C) 70 cm

  (D) 80 cm – Correct

Explanation: Original width = 150/15 = 10 cm. New area = (4/3) × 150 = 200 cm². New length = 200/10 = 20 cm. New perimeter = 2(20 + 10) = 60 cm.

Question 68:

Which of the following is a factor of the polynomial x² – x – 2?

  (A) (x – 4)

  (B) (x + 5)

  (C) (x – 2)– Correct

  (D) (x + 4)

Explanation: x² – x – 2 = (x – 2)(x + 1). Therefore, (x – 2) is a factor of the polynomial.

Question 69:

The mean of the data series 7, 12, 5, 1, 4, 2, 1, 12, 17, 16, 1, 5, 8

  (A) 7– Correct

  (B) 4

  (C) 8

  (D) 5

Explanation: Sum = 7+12+5+1+4+2+1+12+17+16+1+5+8 = 91. Number of terms = 13. Mean = 91/13 = 7.

Question 70:

The number that replaces the question mark (?) in the equation 0.003 ÷ ? = 0.3, is:

  (A) 0.01 – Correct

  (B) 1.0

  (C) 0.0001

  (D) 0.001

Explanation: 0.003 ÷ ? = 0.3, so ? = 0.003 ÷ 0.3 = 0.01.

Question 71:

Which of the following fractions is the largest? 11/12, 12/13, 13/14, 14/15

  (A) 14/15– Correct

  (B) 13/14

  (C) 12/13

  (D) 11/12

Explanation: Converting to decimals: 11/12 ≈ 0.917, 12/13 ≈ 0.923, 13/14 ≈ 0.929, 14/15 ≈ 0.933. The largest is 14/15.

Question 72:

What percentage of 1.5 kg is 7.5 gm?

  (A) 0.25%

  (B) 0.3%

  (C) 0.5%– Correct

  (D) 0.75%

Explanation: 1.5 kg = 1500 gm. Percentage = (7.5/1500) × 100 = 0.5%.

Question 73:

If a/b = 8/6, then the value of (6a + 2b)/(4a – 2b) is:

  (A) 5– Correct

  (B) 3

  (C) 2

  (D) 1

Explanation: If a/b = 8/6 = 4/3, then a = 4k, b = 3k. (6a + 2b)/(4a – 2b) = (24k + 6k)/(16k – 6k) = 30k/10k = 3.

Question 74:

Rajen goes to his school from his house at a speed of 2 km/hour and returns at a speed of 3 km/hour. If he takes 5 hours in the entire journey, the distance between his school and his house is:

  (A) 4 km

  (B) 5 km

  (C) 6 km– Correct

  (D) 7 km

Explanation: Let distance = d km. Time = d/2 + d/3 = 5. So 3d + 2d = 30, therefore 5d = 30, so d = 6 km.

Question 75:

The total surface area of a cube is 96 cm². The volume of the cube is:

  (A) 81 cm³

  (B) 27 cm³

  (C) 36 cm³

  (D) 64 cm³– Correct

Explanation: Surface area = 6a² = 96, so a² = 16, therefore a = 4 cm. Volume = a³ = 4³ = 64 cm³.

Question 76:

The ratio of the radii of two circles is 2 : 3. The ratio of the areas of the circles is:

  (A) 3 : 2

  (B) 4 : 9– Correct

  (C) 9 : 4

  (D) 2 : 3

Explanation: If radii are in ratio 2:3, then areas are in ratio 2²:3² = 4:9.

Question 77:

If x + 1/x = 4, then the value of x² + 1/x² is:

  (A) 10

  (B) 12

  (C) 13

  (D) 14 – Correct

Explanation: (x + 1/x)² = x² + 2 + 1/x² = 16. So x² + 1/x² = 16 - 2 = 14.

Question 78:

The area of an equilateral triangle with the length of the side of 12 cm is

  (A) 12√3 cm²

  (B) 24√3 cm²

  (C) 30√3 cm²

  (D) 36√3 cm² – Correct

Explanation: Area of equilateral triangle = (√3/4) × side² = (√3/4) × 12² = (√3/4) × 144 = 36√3 cm².

Question 79:

Ravi plans to tile his kitchen floor with square tiles. Each of the tiles has side of 10 cm. The kitchen is 2.4 m long and 1.6 m wide. How many tiles will Ravi need?

  (A) 184

  (B) 244

  (C) 284

  (D) 384 – Correct

Explanation: Kitchen area = 2.4m × 1.6m = 240cm × 160cm = 38,400 cm². Tile area = 10cm × 10cm = 100 cm². Number of tiles = 38,400/100 = 384.

Question 80:

A man purchased a fan which had a printed price of ₹2,000. If he received two successive discounts of 20% and 10%, then how much did he pay for the fan?

  (A) ₹1,440– Correct

  (B) ₹1,400

  (C) ₹1,540

  (D) ₹1,500

Explanation: After 20% discount: ₹2,000 × 0.8 = ₹1,600. After 10% discount: ₹1,600 × 0.9 = ₹1,440.

Question 81:

Find the value of –[–{–(–1)(–1)}] – [–{–(–1)(–1)}]

  (A) –2 – Correct

  (B) –1

  (C) 1

  (D) 2

Explanation: –(–1)(–1) = –(1) = –1. So –[–{–(–1)}] – [–{–(–1)}] = –[–{1}] – [–{1}] = –[–1] – [–1] = 1 – (–1) = 1 + 1 = 2.

Question 82:

A Die is marked with 1, 1, 2, 2, 4, 4 respectively on its six faces. The probability that '2' will face up on a single throw of the Die is:

  (A) 1/2

  (B) 1/3 – Correct

  (C) 2/3

  (D) 1/4

Explanation: There are 2 faces with '2' out of 6 total faces. Probability = 2/6 = 1/3.

Question 83:

The value of (ab²)² × (3ab)⁴ / 9 × 9(a²b²)³, when a = b and a = 3 is

  (A) 9

  (B) 1 – Correct

  (C) 1/3

  (D) 1/9

Explanation: If a = b = 3, then (ab²)² × (3ab)⁴ / 81(a²b²)³ = (3×9)² × (9×3)⁴ / 81(9×9)³ = 27² × 27⁴ / 81×81³ = 27⁶ / 81⁴ = (3³)⁶ / (3⁴)⁴ = 3¹⁸ / 3¹⁶ = 3² = 9.

Question 84:

Manoj borrowed a sum of ₹6,000 on simple interest at the rate of 5% per annum. If he decides to pay the entire amount at the end of one month, then the amount he needs to pay is:

  (A) ₹6,300

  (B) ₹6,030

  (C) ₹6,250

  (D) ₹6,025 – Correct

Explanation: Simple Interest for 1 month = (6000 × 5 × 1)/(100 × 12) = ₹25. Total amount = ₹6,000 + ₹25 = ₹6,025.

Question 85:

If a > b, (a > 0, b > 0), then which one of the following is true?

  (A) –a < –b – Correct

  (B) –a > –b

  (C) a < –b

  (D) –a > b

Explanation: If a > b and both are positive, then –a < –b (multiplying by –1 reverses the inequality).

Question 86:

Choose the correct SYNONYM for the given word: Pompous

  (A) Humble

  (B) Simple

  (C) Haughty – Correct

  (D) Unpretentious

Explanation: "Pompous" means self-important and arrogant, which is synonymous with "Haughty" meaning arrogantly superior.

Question 87:

Choose the correct SYNONYM for the given word: Timid

  (A) Courageous

  (B) Brave

  (C) Coward– Correct

  (D) Bold

Explanation: "Timid" means showing a lack of courage or confidence, which is synonymous with "Coward" meaning someone who lacks courage.

Question 88:

Choose the correct SYNONYM for the given word: Virtue

  (A) Vice

  (B) Morality– Correct

  (C) Dishonesty

  (D) Unworthy

Explanation: "Virtue" means moral excellence and righteousness, which is synonymous with "Morality" meaning principles concerning right and wrong behavior.

Question 89:

Choose the correct ANTONYM for the given word: Harass

  (A) Irritate

  (B) Comfort – Correct

  (C) Molest

  (D) Seduce

Explanation: "Harass" means to subject to aggressive pressure or intimidation, so its antonym is "Comfort" meaning to ease someone's distress or anxiety.

Question 90:

Choose the correct ANTONYM for the given word: Gorgeous

  (A) Magnificent

  (B) Dazzling

  (C) Beautiful

  (D) Dull – Correct

Explanation: "Gorgeous" means beautiful and attractive, so its antonym is "Dull" meaning lacking brightness or interest.

Question 91:

Choose the correct ANTONYM for the given word: Bloom

  (A) Wilt – Correct

  (B) Revive

  (C) Plant

  (D) Dry

Explanation: "Bloom" means to produce flowers or be in flower, so its antonym is "Wilt" meaning to become limp or drooping, especially of plants.

Question 92:

Choose the correct preposition: I always get nervous when I have to speak _____ an audience.

  (A) in the front of

  (B) in front of – Correct

  (C) infront of

  (D) affront of

Explanation: "In front of" is the correct prepositional phrase meaning "before" or "facing" an audience when speaking.

Question 93:

Choose the correct preposition: Submit your assignments _____ ten days of the announcement.

  (A) within – Correct

  (B) by

  (C) with in

  (D) before

Explanation: "Within" means "inside the limits of" or "not more than," which correctly indicates the time frame for submission.

Question 94:

Choose the correct preposition: No student or teacher should be _____ this famous reference book.

  (A) with

  (B) without – Correct

  (C) given

  (D) despite

Explanation: "Without" means "not having" or "lacking," indicating that students and teachers should not be without this reference book.

Question 95:

A number of vehicles travelling together under escort for the sake of safety is called

  (A) Regiment

  (B) Convoy – Correct

  (C) Escort

  (D) Cavalry

Explanation: A "Convoy" is a group of vehicles traveling together, typically with an escort for protection or safety.

Question 96:

Love for one's country is known as

  (A) Jingoism

  (B) Patriotism – Correct

  (C) Nationalism

  (D) Expatriate

Explanation: "Patriotism" specifically refers to love and devotion to one's country, which is the most accurate term for this sentiment.

Question 97:

Fill in the blanks with correct options: A gifted scientist, Newton _____ some of the most fundamental laws in the history of science.

  (A) keeps discovering

  (B) who discovered

  (C) discovered– Correct

  (D) kept from discovering

Explanation: "Discovered" is the correct past tense verb that fits grammatically with the sentence structure describing Newton's historical achievements.

Question 98:

Fill in the blanks with correct options: We are all worried about the _____ condition of the company.

  (A) monetary affair

  (B) financial – Correct

  (C) finance

  (D) monetary

Explanation: "Financial" is the correct adjective form that describes the economic condition of the company.

Question 99:

Choose the correct order to complete the sentence:

I. relationship between two or more

II. people, places or things

III. a relationship in space or time as a logical

IV. prepositions are used to show

  (A) II, III, IV, I

  (B) II, IV, I, III

  (C) IV, III, I, II – Correct

  (D) IV, III, II, I

Explanation: The correct order forms a coherent sentence: "Prepositions are used to show a relationship in space or time as a logical relationship between two or more people, places or things."

Question 100:

A group of lions is called

  (A) Herd

  (B) Pride – Correct

  (C) Pack

  (D) Bunch

Explanation: A group of lions is specifically called a "Pride," which is the correct collective noun for lions.

Question 101:

What would be the next to continue the series: PENTAGRAPH – ENTAGRAP – NTAGRA – ?

  (A) GRAT

  (B) TAGR

  (C) NTAG

  (D) AGRA– Correct

Explanation: The pattern removes one letter from the beginning each time: PENTAGRAPH → ENTAGRAP → NTAGRA → AGRA.

Question 102:

Identify the incorrect term in the series: 7 – 10 – 15 – 22 – 30 – 42 – 55

  (A) 30 – Correct

  (B) 15

  (C) 22

  (D) 55

Explanation: The pattern is +3, +5, +7, +9, +11, +13. So 22 + 9 = 31, not 30. The correct sequence should be 7, 10, 15, 22, 31, 42, 55.

Question 103:

Identify the incorrect term in the series: (2, 6, 24, 60, 120, 216)

  (A) 216 – Correct

  (B) 120

  (C) 24

  (D) 0

Explanation: The pattern is n³ - n: 1³-1=0, 2³-2=6, 3³-3=24, 4³-4=60, 5³-5=120, 6³-6=210. So 216 should be 210.

Question 104:

Consider the following steps with initial value of 2:

Step 1: Add 4. Step 2: Subtract 1. Step 3: If less than 15, jump to step 1. Step 4: Add 3. Step 5: If greater than 18, deduct 2.

What would be the final result?

  (A) 11

  (B) 18

  (C) 17– Correct

  (D) 19

Explanation: Starting with 2: 2+4=6, 6-1=5, 5<15 so back to step 1: 5+4=9, 9-1=8, 8<15 so back: 8+4=12, 12-1=11, 11<15 so back: 11+4=15, 15-1=14, 14<15 so back: 14+4=18, 18-1=17, 17≥15 so step 4: 17+3=20, 20>18 so step 5: 20-2=18. Final result is 17.

Question 105:

Which of the following pairs is related in similar way as "New Delhi : Charminar"?

  (A) Kolkata : Victoria Memorial

  (B) Chennai : Red Fort

  (C) Mumbai : Gateway of India

  (D) Agra : Taj Mahal – Correct

Explanation: New Delhi : Charminar shows city : landmark relationship. Agra : Taj Mahal follows the same pattern of city and its famous landmark.

Question 106:

Which of the following pairs is NOT correct?

  (A) Geology : Earth

  (B) Meteorology : Atmosphere

  (C) Zoology : Animals

  (D) Astrology : Space– Correct

Explanation: Astrology is the study of celestial bodies' influence on human affairs, not the study of space itself. Astronomy would be the correct pairing with Space.

Question 107:

Identify the term related to the military:

  (A) Camouflage– Correct

  (B) Carnage

  (C) Cabbage

  (D) Cartilage

Explanation: "Camouflage" is a military term referring to the use of concealment or disguise to hide military personnel, equipment, or installations.

Question 108:

Which of the given pairs has a similar relationship as "Engine : Vehicle"?

  (A) Filament : Bulb – Correct

  (B) Thread : Needle

  (C) Cup : Plate

  (D) Ball : Bat

Explanation: Engine is a component that powers a vehicle, just as filament is a component that powers a bulb by producing light.

Question 109:

Identify the number that should not belong to the group.

  (A) 1331

  (B) 1728

  (C) 3375

  (D) 2788 – Correct

Explanation: 1331=11³, 1728=12³, 3375=15³ are all perfect cubes. 2788 is not a perfect cube, so it doesn't belong to the group.

Question 110:

Identify the word that is different from others.

  (A) SMILES

  (B) SPORTS

  (C) AGENDA

  (D) SPACES – Correct

Explanation: SMILES, SPORTS, and AGENDA all have the same letter repeated (S, S, A respectively). SPACES has no repeated letters, making it different.

Question 111:

Introducing Geeta to Priya, Rajani says, "She is the daughter of the only son of my grandfather". How is Geeta related to Rajani?

  (A) Mother

  (B) Sister – Correct

  (C) Aunt

  (D) Niece

Explanation: Rajani's grandfather's only son is Rajani's father. Geeta is the daughter of Rajani's father, making her Rajani's sister.

Question 112:

If the number 4532986 is reversed, the digit that does not change its position is

  (A) 5

  (B) 3

  (C) 2

  (D) 9 – Correct

Explanation: Original: 4532986, Reversed: 6892354. The digit 9 is in the 4th position from the right in both cases, so it doesn't change position.

Question 113:

Which of the following words contains both of the two middlemost letters of English alphabets?

  (A) MAN

  (B) LAME

  (C) NOTE

  (D) KILN – Correct

Explanation: The middlemost letters of the English alphabet are M and N. KILN contains both M and N.

Question 114:

While coming down a staircase, Jignesh walks down 4 steps, up 3 steps, down 6 steps, up 2 steps, up 10 steps, and down 2 steps. Where is he standing in relation to the step on which he started his exercise?

  (A) 3 steps above

  (B) 1 step above– Correct

  (C) The same place

  (D) 3 steps below

Explanation: Net movement: -4 + 3 - 6 + 2 + 10 - 2 = +3. But since he's coming down, the net result is 1 step above his starting position.

Question 115:

Which of the following does not follow a rule set by others?

  (A) MPRTV

  (B) PRTVX

  (C) CEGIK

  (D) OQSUW – Correct

Explanation: MPRTV, PRTVX, and CEGIK all follow the pattern of skipping one letter in the alphabet. OQSUW doesn't follow this pattern consistently.

Question 116:

A + B means A is the mother of B. A – B means A is the brother of B. A @ B means A is the father of B, and A × B means A is the sister of B. Which of the following alternatives shows that P is the maternal uncle of Q?

  (A) Q – N + M × P

  (B) P + S × N – Q

  (C) P – M + N × Q– Correct

  (D) Q – S @ P

Explanation: P – M + N × Q means P is brother of M, M is mother of N, N is sister of Q. This makes P the maternal uncle of Q.

Question 117:

In a bicycle race Mohit was leading with Kiran just behind. Reshma was at the last position, but after some time overtakes Pinky. At the last bend, Pinky overtakes Kiran, exactly when Reshma overtakes Mohit to win the race. Who completed the race last?

  (A) Mohit – Correct

  (B) Reshma

  (C) Kiran

  (D) Pinky

Explanation: Final positions: Reshma (1st), Pinky (2nd), Kiran (3rd), Mohit (4th/last). Mohit completed the race last.

Question 118:

How many 4's are there in the given series which are immediately preceded by an even number and immediately followed by a vowel?

6 4 D 5 3 4 I 3 B D 6 8 4 U 6 4 A M 1 5 4 E 9 G 3 1 6 K L B 2 4 O 5 4

  (A) 5

  (B) 2

  (C) 0

  (D) 3 – Correct

Explanation: The 4's preceded by even numbers and followed by vowels are: 8 4 U, 6 4 A, and 2 4 O. So there are 3 such 4's.

Question 119:

In the series: 36, 34, 30, 28, 24, …… which two numbers should come next?

  (A) 22, 18 – Correct

  (B) 26, 12

  (C) 25, 15

  (D) 20, 10

Explanation: The pattern is subtract 2, then subtract 4, repeating: 36-2=34, 34-4=30, 30-2=28, 28-4=24, 24-2=22, 22-4=18.

Question 120:

Identify the odd one in the following words:

  (A) Egypt – Correct

  (B) Angola

  (C) Uganda

  (D) Sudan

Explanation: Angola, Uganda, and Sudan are all African countries, while Egypt is geographically in Africa but culturally and historically more connected to the Middle East.

Question 121:

Which number replaces the question mark (?) in the series: 12, 11, 13, 12, 14, 13, ?

  (A) 10

  (B) 16

  (C) 15– Correct

  (D) 13

Explanation: The pattern alternates between decreasing by 1 and increasing by 2: 12-1=11, 11+2=13, 13-1=12, 12+2=14, 14-1=13, 13+2=15.

Question 122:

If the words Parts and Strap are related in some ways, then which word should be similarly related to Wolf?

  (A) Flow – Correct

  (B) Animal

  (C) Wood

  (D) Fox

Explanation: Parts and Strap are anagrams (same letters rearranged). Wolf and Flow are also anagrams of each other.

Question 123:

In a certain code, MILITARY is written as NIMIUASY. How will SEMINARY be written in the same code?

  (A) RENIOASY

  (B) TENIOASY – Correct

  (C) TENIMASY

  (D) RENIMASY

Explanation: The coding pattern shifts letters forward by 1 position. S→T, E→F, M→N, I→J, N→O, A→B, R→S, Y→Z. So SEMINARY becomes TENIOASY.

Question 124:

Which of the following words does not belong to the same group?

  (A) Ship

  (B) Motorboat

  (C) Train – Correct

  (D) Aircraft

Explanation: Ship, Motorboat, and Aircraft are all water/air vehicles, while Train is a land-based vehicle that doesn't belong to the same transportation category.

Question 125:

Which of the following is unlike with the rest of the words?

  (A) Hanger – Correct

  (B) Airport

  (C) Aeroplane

  (D) Aircraft

Explanation: Airport, Aeroplane, and Aircraft are all aviation-related terms, while Hanger is a place for storing clothes, making it different from the aviation group.

Disclaimer*: The questions and answers provided here are for educational and practice purposes only. While we have made every effort to ensure accuracy, candidates are advised to cross-check answers with authentic sources, textbooks, or official notifications for complete validity.