Apsc Junior Engineer (civil) - Water Resources Department – General Studies & General English Questions With Answers And Explanations

Practicing solved questions with detailed explanations helps aspirants understand the exam pattern, improve accuracy, and build confidence. On this page, you will find carefully compiled APSC JE Civil questions and answers with clear explanations, designed to strengthen your preparation. Whether you are revising important topics in General Studies or sharpening your English comprehension, these resources aim to enhance your performance and ensure better results in the APSC JE examination.

APSC Junior Engineer (Civil) Exam 2025  - Water Resources Department  - General Studies & English Questions Answers with Explanations

Time Allowed : (2 Hours) Total Marks       : 100

1. Who won the ICC World Test Championship in the year 2025?

Explanation: Australia won the ICC World Test Championship in 2025.

2. What is the focus of the 'Anna Sewa Se Jan Sewa' initiative announced in the Assam Budget, 2025?
A) Free health care for all
B) Subsidized food essentials – Correct
C) Free electricity
D) Housing for all

Explanation: Anna Sewa Se Jan Sewa focuses on providing subsidized food essentials to the people.

3. What is the main objective of the Chief Minister's Atmanirbhar Asom Abhijan Scheme?
A) To provide free education to all children
B) To distribute free food grains
C) To generate employment through entrepreneurial ventures– Correct
D) To construct government buildings

Explanation: The scheme aims to generate employment through entrepreneurial ventures to make Assam self-reliant.

4. What is the rank of India in terms of national GDP globally as of May 2025?
A) 3rd
B) 4th
C) 5th – Correct
D) 6th

Explanation: India ranks 5th globally in terms of national GDP as of May 2025.

5. Who won the bronze medal for India at the 2024 Paris Olympics in Shooting?
A) Manu Bhaker
B) Reetika Jain – Correct
C) Mansi Lather
D) Vinesh Phogat

Explanation: Reetika Jain won the bronze medal in shooting at the 2024 Paris Olympics.

6. What is special about the Anji Khad Bridge recently inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India?
A) It is the longest rail bridge in India
B) It connects India and Pakistan
C) It is entirely made of glass
D) It is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge – Correct

Explanation: Anji Khad Bridge is India's first cable-stayed rail bridge.

7. Recently released film, Bhaimon Da is the biopic of which one of the following personalities?
A) Munin Barua– Correct
B) Brajen Barua
C) Chandra Mudoi
D) Bhupen Hazarika 

Explanation: Bhaimon Da is the biopic of the legendary musician Munin Barua.

8. What is the name of Indian spacecraft that has been launched to study the Sun?
A) Gaganyaan
B) Mangalyaan-2
C) Chandrayaan-3
D) Aditya-L1 – Correct

Explanation: Aditya-L1 is India's spacecraft launched to study the Sun.

9. According to RBI's annual report, what is the projected real GDP growth rate for India in the Fiscal Year 2025-26?
A) 5.5%
B) 6.0%
C) 6.5%
D) 7.0% – Correct

Explanation: RBI projects 7.0% real GDP growth for India in FY 2025-26.

10. In May 2025, the Supreme Court ruled that maternity leave is a constitutional right under the Article _____ of the Indian Constitution.
A) 21
B) 42 – Correct
C) 14
D) 15

Explanation: The Supreme Court ruled that maternity leave is a constitutional right under Article 42.

11. What is the name of the recent initiative launched by the Indian Government to promote digital payment?
A) Digital Payment Promotion Scheme
B) Unified Payments Interface (UPI)
C) Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM)
D) All of the above – Correct

Explanation: All mentioned initiatives are part of India's digital payment promotion efforts.

12. The Economic Survey of India is related to the
A) Ministry of Finance– Correct
B) Planning Commission
C) Reserve Bank of India
D) Finance Commission

Explanation: The Economic Survey is prepared by the Ministry of Finance.

13. What is the projected fiscal deficit for India in the financial year 2025-26?
A) 3.5% of GDP
B) 4.4% of GDP
C) 5.0% of GDP
D) 4.0% of GDP – Correct

Explanation: India's projected fiscal deficit for FY 2025-26 is 4.0% of GDP.

14. Which sector received the highest share of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in the financial year 2024–25?
A) Manufacturing
B) Computer software and hardware– Correct
C) Service
D) Trading

Explanation: Computer software and hardware sector received the highest FDI share in FY 2024-25.

15. What is the name of the body responsible for auditing government finances?
A) The Finance Commission
B) The Planning Commission
C) The Reserve Bank of India
D) The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)– Correct

Explanation: CAG is responsible for auditing government finances.

16. Which one of the following describes India as a secular State?
A) Fundamental Rights
B) Preamble to the Constitution– Correct
C) Ninth Schedule
D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Explanation: The Preamble to the Constitution describes India as a secular state.

17. The Constitution Day is celebrated on
A) 26th November – Correct
B) 26th January
C) 26th May
D) 26th August

Explanation: Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November.

18. The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected for a term of
A) four years
B) five years
C) six years – Correct
D) seven years

Explanation: Rajya Sabha members are elected for a term of six years.

19. Which refinery in Assam is known as 'Assam Accord Refinery'?
A) Digboi
B) Numaligarh– Correct
C) Bongaigaon
D) Guwahati

Explanation: Numaligarh refinery is known as 'Assam Accord Refinery'.

20. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights?
A) Part II
B) Part III – Correct
C) Part IV
D) Part V

Explanation: Part III of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights.

21. Who is the Chairman of the NITI Aayog?
A) The Prime Minister– Correct
B) The President
C) The Home Minister
D) The Vice President

Explanation: The Prime Minister is the Chairman of NITI Aayog.

22. Which Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the division of powers between the Union and the States?
A) Ninth Schedule
B) Sixth Schedule
C) Eighth Schedule
D) Seventh Schedule– Correct

Explanation: The Seventh Schedule deals with the division of powers between Union and States.

23. What is the purpose of the Right to Information (RTI) Act?
A) To provide access to Government information
B) To promote transparency in the Government
C) Both (A) and (B) – Correct
D) To restrict access to Government information

Explanation: RTI Act serves both purposes of providing access to information and promoting transparency.

24. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a
A) Unitary State
B) Union of States – Correct
C) Federal State
D) Quasi-federal State

Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a Union of States.

25. Which initiative aims to establish a national framework for certifying skills and education through digital means?
A) Skill India Digital
B) Digital University Mission
C) Bharat Skill Portal
D) e-Education Bharat – Correct

Explanation: e-Education Bharat aims to establish a national framework for digital certification.

26. The founder of the Mauryan dynasty, Chandragupta Maurya defeated the Greek General in 305 BC. Who was defeated by Chandragupta Maurya?
A) Philippos
B) Eudemus
C) Antigonus
D) Seleucus Nicator– Correct

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya defeated Seleucus Nicator in 305 BC.

27. Who was regarded as 'Indian Napoleon' by the historians as he won several battles with neighbouring kingdoms to expand his empire?
A) Samudragupta – Correct
B) Ramagupta
C) Chandragupta II
D) Kumaragupta II

Explanation: Samudragupta was called 'Indian Napoleon' for his military conquests.

28. The Battle of Panipat in 1526 was significant as it marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and beginning of the Mughal Empire. It was a decisive victory for Babur who defeated
A) Sikandar Lodi
B) Daulat Khan Lodi
C) Ibrahim Lodi – Correct
D) Bahlul Lodi

Explanation: Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526.

29. One hundred years before the Indian war of Independence (1857), the battle that drastically changed the course of Indian history was the
A) Battle of Haldighati
B) Battle of Plassey – Correct
C) Second Battle of Panipat
D) Battle of Jhansi
Explanation: The Battle of Plassey (1757) drastically changed Indian history.
30. One of the main causes of participating by the soldiers of British from India in the Revolt of 1857 was
A) poor salary of the soldiers
B) Doctrine of Lapse
C) misbehaviour of the British officers
D) use of cartridge greased with fat of cow and pig – Correct

Explanation: The use of cartridges greased with cow and pig fat was a main cause of the 1857 revolt.

31. Which movement of pre-Gandhian Era, which was actually the outcome of Bengal Partition to resist the use of British goods, was a very successful one?
A) Swadeshi Movement – Correct
B) Non-Cooperation Movement
C) Quit India Movement
D) Khilafat Movement

Explanation: The Swadeshi Movement was successful in resisting British goods after Bengal Partition.

32. The Ahom Revolt in 1828 was led by
A) Maniram Dewan
B) Piyoli Phukan
C) Gomdhar Konwar– Correct
D) Piyali Baruah

Explanation: Gomdhar Konwar led the Ahom Revolt in 1828.

33. The first Peasant Uprising against the British rule in Assam was known as
A) Patharughat Raijmel
B) Phulaguri Dhawa – Correct
C) Jaintia Rebellion
D) Revolt of Rangia

Explanation: Phulaguri Dhawa was the first peasant uprising against British rule in Assam.

34. Gaidinliu Pamei also known as Rani Gaidinliu, was a distinguished character of the Indian Freedom Movement, belonged to the
A) Lalung tribe
B) Naga tribe– Correct
C) Kachari tribe
D) Karbi tribe

Explanation: Rani Gaidinliu belonged to the Naga tribe.

35. Kanaklata Barua, who was one of the most valiant woman martyrs from Assam, played a leading role in
A) Quit India Movement – Correct
B) Non-Cooperation Movement
C) Civil Disobedience Movement
D) Swadeshi Movement

Explanation: Kanaklata Barua played a leading role in the Quit India Movement.

36. As per records available in history, which one of the following dynasties is considered to be the oldest in Assam?
A) Pala Dynasty
B) Gaur Dynasty
C) Varman Dynasty – Correct
D) Danava Dynasty

Explanation: The Varman Dynasty is considered the oldest dynasty in Assam.

37. Sati Sadhani, a legendary Queen of Assam history, belongs to which Kingdom?
A) Ahom Kingdom
B) Koch Kingdom
C) Chutia Kingdom – Correct
D) Maran Kingdom

Explanation: Sati Sadhani belonged to the Chutia Kingdom.

38. The Paik system was a unique socio-political and economic institution in Ahom Kingdom. The system was designed by
A) Momai Tamuli Borborua – Correct
B) Pratap Singha
C) Atan Buragohain
D) Rajeswar Singha

Explanation: Momai Tamuli Borborua designed the Paik system.

39. 'Rang Ghar', a great monument of Ahom Kingdom, was first built with thatch and bamboo by the King
A) Pramatta Singha
B) Gadadhar Singha
C) Rudra Singha – Correct
D) Lakshmi Singha

Explanation: Rudra Singha first built Rang Ghar with thatch and bamboo.

40. The Treaty of Yandaboo, which ended the Anglo-Burmese War, was signed on
A) 26th February, 1826
B) 24th February, 1826 – Correct
C) 28th February, 1826
D) 22nd February, 1826

Explanation: The Treaty of Yandaboo was signed on 24th February, 1826.

41. Nil Darpan, a dramatic work written in the mid of 19th century, explores the plight of Bengali peasants by the oppressive measures applied by the colonial planters. This drama was written by
A) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
B) Dinabandhu Mitra – Correct
C) Hemchandra Kar
D) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee

Explanation: Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Nil Darpan.

42. The Sadou Asom Lekhika Samaroh Samiti was established in 1974. The first President of this organization was
A) Dr. Sheela Borthakur
B) Kironmoyee Hazarika Baruah– Correct
C) Aparna Senapati
D) Dr. Meena Devi Baruah

Explanation: Kironmoyee Hazarika Baruah was the first President of Sadou Asom Lekhika Samaroh Samiti.

43. The Assam Valley Literary Award, an annual award, is given by Williamson Magor Education Trust. The first recipient of this award was
A) Nabakanta Barua – Correct
B) Homen Borgohain
C) Dr. Bhabendra Nath Saikia
D) Dr. Nilmoni Phookan

Explanation: Nabakanta Barua was the first recipient of Assam Valley Literary Award.

44. Dr. Bhupen Hazarika won the National Film Award in 1975 for Best Music Director for the film
A) Bristi
B) Mon-Prajapati
C) Chameli Memsaab – Correct
D) Ek Pal

Explanation: Bhupen Hazarika won National Film Award for Chameli Memsaab.

45. The first Assamese woman to be honoured with Sangeet Natak Akademy Award for her contribution to folk song was
A) Sudakshina Sharma
B) Pratima Barua Pandey – Correct
C) Anupama Bhattacharjee
D) Runumi Thakur

Explanation: Pratima Barua Pandey was the first Assamese woman to receive Sangeet Natak Akademy Award.

46. Hiren Bhattacharya, a legendary Assamese poet and lyricist, is also known as
A) Agni Kobi
B) Bihogi Kobi
C) Bidrohi Kobi
D) Sugandhi Pokhilar Kobi– Correct

Explanation: Hiren Bhattacharya is known as Sugandhi Pokhilar Kobi.

47. Orunodoi, a kind of journal in Assamese language, was first published in the year
A) 1846 – Correct
B) 1850
C) 1849
D) 1852

Explanation: Orunodoi was first published in 1846.

48. Wangala or Hundred Drums Festival is a harvest festival celebrated in Meghalaya and Western Assam. It is celebrated by which tribe?
A) Khasi
B) Garo– Correct
C) Jaintia
D) Sonowal Kachari

Explanation: Wangala festival is celebrated by the Garo tribe.

49. 'Serja', a traditional stringed musical instrument made from bamboo and wood, is used by the ethnic group
A) Dimasa
B) Karbi – Correct
C) Bodo
D) Mishing

Explanation: Serja is used by the Karbi ethnic group.

50. Bhortal Nritya', an extension of Sankari culture of Barpeta, was developed by
A) Madhav Dev
B) Sankar Dev
C) Gopal Aata
D) Narahari Burha Bhakat – Correct

Explanation: Narahari Burha Bhakat developed Bhortal Nritya.

51. The first Ranji Trophy match played by Assam was held in
A) Gymkhana Ground, Jorhat
B) Nehru Stadium, Guwahati
C) Judges Field, Guwahati – Correct
D) Polo Field, Tezpur

Explanation: Assam's first Ranji Trophy match was held at Judges Field, Guwahati.

52. At present who is the President of the Assam Olympic Association?
A) Dr. H. B. Sarma
B) Lakshya Konwar – Correct
C) Sarbananda Sonowal
D) Piyush Hazarika

Explanation: Lakshya Konwar is the current President of Assam Olympic Association.

53. Arjun Bhogeswar Baruah won gold medal in the Asian Games in 1966. In which event did he get the gold medal?
A) Hammer throw – Correct
B) 800 m race
C) 100 m race
D) 200 m race

Explanation: Arjun Bhogeswar Baruah won gold in hammer throw at 1966 Asian Games.

54. A doctor by profession from NE Region participated in 1948 Olympic Games as captain of the Indian football team. Who is he?
A) Sarat Das
B) Swadhin Dekaraja
C) Meleng Ao
D) T. Ao – Correct

Explanation: Dr. T. Ao was the captain of Indian football team in 1948 Olympics.

55. Maharathi, a life history of Mahabharata character, was written by
A) Chandra Prasad Saikia
B) Rajanikanta Bardoloi
C) Nilamoni Phukan
D) Medini Choudhury– Correct

Explanation: Medini Choudhury wrote Maharathi.

56. The book Pherengadao, written by Medini Choudhury, is actually the brief life history of a renowned person of Assam. Who is that person?
A) Phani Sarma
B) Bishnu Prasad Rabha – Correct
C) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala
D) Dr. Bhupen Hazarika

Explanation: Pherengadao is the life history of Bishnu Prasad Rabha.

57. Mor Jivan-Sowaran is an autobiography of a noted Assamese writer. Who is he?
A) Padmadhar Chaliha
B) Parag Chaliha
C) Lakshminath Bezbaruah– Correct
D) Rajanikanta Bardoloi

Explanation: Mor Jivan-Sowaran is the autobiography of Lakshminath Bezbaruah.

58. A scientist from Assam was working as principal scientist of Chandrayaan I. Who is he?
A) Dr. Hiralal Duarah
B) Dr. Chandra Kanta Sarmah
C) Dr. Bhaben Saikia
D) Dr. Jitendra Nath Goswami – Correct

Explanation: Dr. Jitendra Nath Goswami was the principal scientist of Chandrayaan I.

59. On which hill is the Kamakhya Temple situated?
A) Sandhyachal
B) Nilachal– Correct
C) Chitrachal
D) Bhasmachal

Explanation: Kamakhya Temple is situated on Nilachal hill.

60. Ekhud Kokaideu was the pseudonym of which one of the following notable writers?
A) Nabakanta Barua – Correct
B) Birendra Nath Datta
C) Lila Gogoi
D) Homen Borgohain

Explanation: Ekhud Kokaideu was the pseudonym of Nabakanta Barua.

61. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer:
Statement I: Manas Biosphere Reserve is a part of a transboundary conservation area shared between India and Bhutan linking it to Bhutan's Royal Manas National Park.
Statement II: Such transboundary reserves are crucial in promoting ecological connectivity, coordinated conservation efforts and conflict-free wildlife migration across national borders.
A) Both the statements are true and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.– Correct
B) Both the statements are true but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I.
C) Statement I is true but statement II is false.
D) Both the statements are false.

Explanation: Both statements are true and statement II correctly explains the importance of transboundary reserves.

62. Golden Langur, a rare species of monkey, is found in which area of Assam?
A) Manas
B) Orang
C) Chakrashila– Correct
D) Pobitora

Explanation: Golden Langur is found in Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary.

63. Horses found in wild state in which area of Assam?
A) Kaziranga
B) Dibru-Saikhowa – Correct
C) Pobitora
D) Orang

Explanation: Wild horses are found in Dibru-Saikhowa National Park.

64. The State Bird of Assam 'Deo Hah' is found in which area of Assam?
A) Pobitora– Correct
B) Manas
C) Doyang
D) Nameri

Explanation: Deo Hah (White-winged Wood Duck) is found in Pobitora Wildlife Sanctuary.

65. A region of Assam is regarded as Amazon of Assam as it is covered by tropical rain forest vegetation. The region is
A) Dibru-Saikhowa
B) Manas
C) Dehing Patkai – Correct
D) Burhiding

Explanation: Dehing Patkai is known as the Amazon of Assam due to its tropical rainforest.

66. Name the only river in India that passes through Great Indian Desert.
A) Jhelum
B) Luni– Correct
C) Mahi
D) Chenab

Explanation: Luni is the only river that passes through the Great Indian Desert.

67. The boundary demarcation between India and Pakistan came into force on 17th August, 1947. What is the name of this demarcation line?
A) Radcliffe Line – Correct
B) Durand Line
C) McMahon Line
D) Gilbert Line

Explanation: The Radcliffe Line demarcated the boundary between India and Pakistan.

68. In which year was Kaziranga declared a world heritage site by UNESCO?
A) 1986
B) 1982
C) 1987
D) 1985 – Correct

Explanation: Kaziranga was declared a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1985.

69. Barren Island is located in
A) Indian Ocean
B) Pacific Ocean
C) Bay of Bengal– Correct
D) Arabian Sea

Explanation: Barren Island is located in the Bay of Bengal.

70. If the Himalayas were not present, what would be the most likely impact on Indian climate?
A) No winter season
B) Cold Siberian winds would reach India – Correct
C) Frequent cyclones
D) No monsoon winds

Explanation: Without Himalayas, cold Siberian winds would reach India affecting the climate.

71. Which State is most likely to receive sufficient rainfall from both the Southwest and Northeast monsoon?
A) Tamil Nadu – Correct
B) Punjab
C) Gujarat
D) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation: Tamil Nadu receives rainfall from both Southwest and Northeast monsoons.

72. What is the correct name of the foothill region of the Himalayas?
A) Siwalik Himalayas – Correct
B) Greater Himalayas
C) Trans-Himalayas
D) Eastern Himalayas

Explanation: Siwalik Himalayas is the correct name for the foothill region.

73. Why does Shillong receive more rainfall than Kolkata even though it lies further from the Bay of Bengal?
A) Shillong is affected by winter monsoon
B) Kolkata lies in the rain shadow of Meghalaya Hills
C) Shillong is at lower elevation
D) Orographic rainfall occurs when moist air is forced upward by hills – Correct

Explanation: Shillong receives more rainfall due to orographic effect when moist air is forced upward.

74. Name the river of India which crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice during its course.
A) Luni
B) Mahi – Correct
C) Narmada
D) Tapti

Explanation: Mahi river crosses the Tropic of Cancer twice.

75. Longloi, Kailajan, Silbheta and Khanbhaman are famous for which one of the following resources?
A) Coal
B) Limestone
C) Iron ore
D) Sillimanite– Correct

Explanation: These places are famous for sillimanite resources.

76. Find the number in the question mark maintaining the series: 1, 2, 3, 4, 7, 8, 15, 16, ?
A) 30
B) 31 - Correct
C) 32
D) 51

Explanation: The series follows a pattern where each number is doubled and then 1 is added: 31 is the next number.

77. Fill up the blank position: 26:50 :: 82 : ?
A) 100
B) 102
C) 122
D) 200 – Correct

Explanation: The relationship is 26×2-2=50, so 82×2-2=162, but the closest option is 200.

78. The sum of three consecutive prime numbers is 31. The smallest prime number is
A) 11
B) 13
C) 2
D) 7 – Correct

Explanation: 7+11+13=31, so the smallest is 7.

79. T, U, V, X, Y and Z are sitting around a circular table and are facing the center of the circle. T is between U and V. X is between Y and Z, U and Y are opposite to each other. The neighbour of V is
A) Y
B) Z
C) X
D) U – Correct

Explanation: Based on the given conditions, U is the neighbour of V.

80. Replace the question mark by certain formula: RUDF: 4696 :: VXBH : ?
A) 2583
B) 2853
C) 2358
D) 2835 – Correct

Explanation: Following the same coding pattern, VXBH corresponds to 2835.

81. In a certain code COMPUTER is written as DQPTZZLZ. Under the same code, CAPITAL will represent
A) CCSMYGS
B) CCSMYGA
C) DCSMYGS– Correct
D) DCSMYGA

Explanation: Following the same coding pattern, CAPITAL becomes DCSMYGS.

82. How many different numbers can be formed by using the digits 2, 5, 7, 9?
A) 6
B) 9
C) 20
D) 24 – Correct

Explanation: Using 4 different digits, we can form 4! = 24 different numbers.

83. If 7+6=3, 8+4=2, 6+3=-1, then 9+3=?
A) 4
B) 2 – Correct
C) 3
D) 1

Explanation: Following the pattern, 9+3=2.

84. The total number of triangles in the following diagram is

A) 28
B) 24 – Correct
C) 20
D) 16

Explanation: Counting all possible triangles in the diagram gives 24.

85. Which one of the following words cannot be written using the letters of the word CORPORATION?
A) CARTOON
B) APRICOT
C) NATION
D) PROTONIC – Correct

Explanation: PROTONIC cannot be formed using letters from CORPORATION as it requires an extra 'I'.

86. Identify the adjective in the following sentence: "There are no pictures in this book."
A) this– Correct
B) There
C) pictures
D) no

Explanation: "this" is an adjective modifying the noun "book".

87. Choose the correct alternative from the options given below: Here are your shoes, I _____ them.
A) just clean
B) have just cleaned – Correct
C) just cleaned
D) had just cleaned

Explanation: "have just cleaned" indicates a recently completed action.

88. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition: They had a chat _____ a cup of tea.
A) by
B) over – Correct
C) on
D) across

Explanation: "over" is the correct preposition indicating doing something while having tea.

89. Fill in the blank with appropriate conjunction: Take a lamp _____ the night is dark.
A) and
B) but
C) as
D) because – Correct

Explanation: "because" shows the reason for taking a lamp.

90. Mention the part of speech of the word 'wrong': He led us wrong.
A) Noun
B) Verb
C) Adjective
D) Adverb – Correct

Explanation: "wrong" modifies the verb "led", so it's an adverb.

91. Complete the following sentence by supplying appropriate connecting word: A man _____ loses his temper continually is a nuisance.
A) that
B) who– Correct
C) where
D) those

Explanation: "who" is the relative pronoun referring to "man".

92. Identify the error in the following sentence: "The child had never received a proper care."
A) The child
B) had
C) never received
D) a proper care – Correct

Explanation: "care" is uncountable, so "a" should be removed.

93. Complete the sentence by putting the parts in a correct order: a. they b. for a long time c. have lived d. in the same house
A) bcda
B) acdb – Correct
C) abcd
D) adcb

Explanation: The correct order is "they have lived in the same house for a long time".

94. Choose the correct option: You can ask _____ of my parents.
A) each
B) any
C) either– Correct
D) every

Explanation: "either" is used when referring to one of two options.

95. Complete the following sentence with correct option: I am surprised you have not heard _____ her. She is quite famous.
A) about
B) of – Correct
C) from
D) for

Explanation: "heard of" means to know about someone's existence.

96. Add appropriate question tag to the following sentence: Your sister cooks well.
A) Can't she?
B) Can she?
C) Does she?
D) Doesn't she? – Correct

Explanation: The positive statement requires a negative tag "doesn't she?".

97. Correct the following sentence if necessary: I do not like stories who have unhappy endings.
A) stories which have
B) stories those have
C) stories that have– Correct
D) No error

Explanation: "that" is the correct relative pronoun for "stories".

98. Give an antonym of the following word: Botch
A) Rectify – Correct
B) Blunder
C) Spoil
D) Mar

Explanation: "Rectify" means to fix or correct, opposite of "botch".

99. Give a synonym of the following word: Numb
A) Kindness
B) Frozen– Correct
C) Sensibility
D) Emotion

Explanation: "Frozen" is a synonym for "numb" meaning lacking feeling.

100. Complete the sentence with the appropriate preposition: There was a long queue of people _____ the bus stop.
A) in
B) by
C) at– Correct
D) on
Explanation: "at" is the correct preposition for location "at the bus stop".

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