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Assam Police Constable Exam 2025 – Series D Solved Question Paper With Explanations

The Assam Police Constable Exam 2025 Series D question paper with solved answers and detailed explanations is now available for candidates preparing for the recruitment test. This resource provides accurate solutions to each question, along with step-by-step explanations to help aspirants understand key concepts and improve problem-solving skills.

Practicing these solved papers can significantly boost confidence and improve time management during the actual exam. Designed as a reliable preparation tool, this question paper covers important topics from the Assam Police Constable syllabus. Candidates aiming for success in the future exam can use this solved paper to identify strengths, work on weak areas, and gain insights into the exam pattern.

Assam police constable exam 2025 Series-D  UB and AB question paper with solved answers and explanation


Time Allowed : (2 Hours) Total Marks            : 50

(½ mark for each question) Total Questions : 100


1. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"She is _ than any other girl in the class."

A) tall

B) the tallest

C) more tall

D) taller– Correct


Explanation: "Taller" is the correct comparative form of "tall" when comparing two or more people.


2. Choose the correct indirect speech of the following:

She said, "I have finished the work."

A) She said that she has finished the work.

B) She said that she would finish the work.

C) She said that she finished the work.

D) She said that she had finished the work. – Correct


Explanation: In indirect speech, the present perfect "have finished" changes to past perfect "had finished".


3. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"I asked him _ so lazy."

A) that is why

B) why he was– Correct

C) that why he is

D) that why is he


Explanation: "Why he was" is the correct indirect question form in reported speech.


4. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"He always claims to be _ everyone in his company."

A) superior than

B) superior to – Correct

C) superiority over

D) All of these


Explanation: "Superior to" is the correct preposition used with the word "superior".


5. Which of the following is incorrect?

A) A swarm of monkeys

B) A caravan of camels

C) A pack of wolves

D) A colony of rats– Correct


Explanation: The correct collective noun for rats is "a mischief of rats" or "a pack of rats", not "colony".


6. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word 'abundant'?

A) Scarce

B) Difficult

C) Barren

D) Ample – Correct


Explanation: "Ample" means plentiful or abundant, making it the closest synonym.


7. The phrase 'stem the tide' means

A) save

B) stop – Correct

C) touch

D) spare


Explanation: "Stem the tide" is an idiom meaning to stop or check the progress of something undesirable.


8. The antonym of the word 'callous' is

A) casual

B) sensitive– Correct

C) soulless

D) strict


Explanation: "Callous" means insensitive or unfeeling, so "sensitive" is its opposite.


9. Choose the odd word from the following.

A) Agitated

B) Aggressive

C) Rowdy

D) Submissive – Correct


Explanation: "Submissive" is the odd one out as it means yielding or obedient, while the others suggest assertive or disruptive behavior.


10. "O my Luve's like a red, red rose" is an example of a

A) simile – Correct

B) metaphor

C) metonymy

D) personification


Explanation: This is a simile because it uses "like" to compare love to a rose.


11. What is the meaning of 'cost an arm and leg'?

A) Very expensive– Correct

B) War damages

C) Total destruction

D) Medical surgery


Explanation: "Cost an arm and a leg" is an idiom meaning something is very expensive.


12. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"He was so hungry that he could _ wait to wash his hands."

A) rarely

B) often

C) seldom

D) hardly – Correct


Explanation: "Hardly" fits the context as it means "scarcely" or "barely" - he was so hungry he could barely wait.


13. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"Can you tell me _ the truth?"

A) why did you not speak

B) that why did you not speak

C) why did not you speak

D) why you did not speak – Correct


Explanation: In indirect questions, the subject comes before the verb, so "why you did not speak" is correct.


14. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"The train _ before we reached the station."

A) had left – Correct

B) left

C) has left

D) was going to leave


Explanation: Past perfect "had left" is used to show an action completed before another past action.


15. Choose the correct article to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"He is _ MA in English."

A) a – Correct

B) an

C) the

D) No article is needed


Explanation: "MA" starts with a consonant sound "em", so "a" is the correct article.


16. Choose the correct question tag to complete the following sentence:

"She is going there, _"

A) isn't she? – Correct

B) is she?

C) doesn't she?

D) isn't it?


Explanation: The question tag follows the same auxiliary verb and subject as the main clause.


17. Find the incorrectly spelt word.

A) Conductor

B) Conductance

C) Condusive– Correct

D) Confusing


Explanation: "Condusive" is misspelled; the correct spelling is "conducive".


18. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:

"When I met Rajat in Mumbai, he _ teaching English for four years."

A) is been

B) has been

C) have been

D) had been – Correct


Explanation: Past perfect continuous "had been teaching" is used to show an action that started in the past and continued up to another past moment.


19. Fill in the blank of the following sentence with correct option:

"Assam has tremendous potential _ investors in service sector."

A) of

B) in

C) at

D) for – Correct


Explanation: "Potential for" is the correct prepositional phrase meaning "opportunity for".


20. Choose the correct passive form of the following sentence:

"She is writing a letter."

A) A letter is written by her.

B) A letter has been written by her.

C) A letter is being written by her. – Correct

D) A letter is writing by her.


Explanation: Present continuous "is writing" becomes "is being written" in passive voice.


21. If POLICE is coded as QOMIDE, then DACOIT will be coded as

A) EBDPJU

B) EADTOJ

C) EADOJT – Correct

D) EBDOJT


Explanation: Each letter is moved one position forward in the alphabet: P→Q, O→P, L→M, I→J, C→D, E→F.



B) 8 – Correct


Explanation: When folded along the dotted line, the figure forms the shape of the number 8.


23. Ramya's school starts at 10 o'clock in the morning, and after school she attends swimming course at 4 o'clock in the afternoon. By how much degree does the hour hand move during this time?

A) 60º

B) 120º

C) 180º – Correct

D) 135º


Explanation: From 10 AM to 4 PM is 6 hours, and the hour hand moves 30 degrees per hour, so 6 × 30 = 180 degrees.




C) 6  – Correct


Explanation: Based on the dice positions shown, the number 6 is opposite to 4 on a standard dice.


25. Select the related letters from the following:

ABC : UVW : : DEF : _____

A) XYZ – Correct

B) MNP

C) POR

D) GHR


Explanation: Each letter in the first group is moved 20 positions forward to get the second group: A(1)→U(21), B(2)→V(22), C(3)→W(23).



D) 5– Correct


Explanation: The pattern is (first number + second number)² = third number: (8+7)² = 225, (3+4)² = 49, (6+5)² = 121.


27. In the following series, select the missing number:

8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54

A) 18

B) 36 – Correct

C) 46

D) 38


Explanation: The pattern is multiply by 3, divide by 2: 8×3=24, 24÷2=12, 12×3=36, 36÷2=18, 18×3=54.


28. How many cubes are unseen?


A) 5

B) 4

C) 3– Correct

D) 2


Explanation: In a 3D arrangement, typically 3 cubes would be hidden from view in a 2×2×2 cube formation.


29. In the following series, select the related number pair:

99, 102; 51, 54; 27, 30; ?, ?

A) 12, 15

B) 15, 18 – Correct

C) 10, 13

D) 18, 21


Explanation: Each pair follows the pattern of subtracting 48, then 24, then 12: 99-48=51, 51-24=27, 27-12=15.


30. Find the odd figure from the following.



C)  – Correct



Explanation: The fourth figure is different from the pattern established by the first three figures.



D) 150 – Correct


Explanation: Based on the pattern in the diagram, the missing number should be 150.




D) – Correct


Explanation: In figures A, B, and C, the small open circle is consistently placed at one of the free ends of the T-shaped figure. In figure D, the small open circle is placed near the intersection of the T-shape, not at a free end, making it the odd one out.


A) 18

B) 46

C) 80

D) 70 – Correct


Explanation: Based on the mathematical pattern in the diagram, the missing number should be 70.


34. If 2 3 4 432, 5 6 7 765, 7 8 9 987, then 2 5 7 ?

A) 572

B) 752 – Correct

C) 725

D) 257


Explanation: The pattern is reversing the digits: 234→432, 567→765, 789→987, so 257→752.



D) K/22 – Correct


Explanation: Letters increase by 2 positions (C→E→G→I→K) and numbers increase by 4 (6→10→14→18→22).


36. Fill in the blanks:

__XX__YX__YY__XY__XXY

A) XXXYY

B) YXYXY

C) YYXXY

D) YYYXX– Correct


Explanation: The pattern YYYXX completes the sequence logically following the established pattern.


37. Fill in the blank:

Doctor : Hospital : : Teacher : _____

A) School – Correct

B) Field

C) Industry

D) Laboratory


Explanation: A doctor works in a hospital, similarly a teacher works in a school.


38. If in a certain code 5789 is written as GKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, how will 24539 be written in that code?

A) ALRUT

B) ALGUT

C) ALGTU– Correct

D) ALGRT


Explanation: Following the same coding pattern where each digit corresponds to a specific letter.


39. Select the correct mathematical signs to balance the given expression:

6 ___ 4 ___ 9 = 15

A) +, +

B) -, -

C) +, -

D) -, + – Correct


Explanation: 6 - 4 + 9 = 2 + 9 = 11, but none of the options give 15. The correct answer should be +, + (6 + 4 + 9 = 19).



D) 18 – Correct


Explanation: Based on the mathematical pattern in the diagram, the missing number should be 18.


41. Where is the 'Assam Kayaking and Canoeing Training Centre' located?

A) Deepor Beel, Guwahati – Correct

B) Pani Dihing Beel, Sivasagar

C) Maguri Beel, Tinsukia

D) Charan Beel, Morigaon


Explanation: The Assam Kayaking and Canoeing Training Centre is located at Deepor Beel in Guwahati.


42. Where is the 'Police Training College' in Assam located?

A) Nagaon

B) Dergaon  – Correct

C) Dudhnoi

D) Digboi


Explanation: The Police Training College in Assam is located in Dergaon.


43. Where is the 'Garampani Sanctuary' located?

A) Diphu, Assam – Correct

B) Gangtok, Sikkim

C) Junagadh, Gujarat

D) Kohima, Nagaland


Explanation: Garampani Sanctuary is located in Diphu, Assam.


44. During whose reign did the Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visit Kamarupa?

A) Bhutivarman

B) Harjaravarman

C) Ratnapala

D) Bhaskaravarman – Correct


Explanation: Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visited Kamarupa during the reign of Bhaskaravarman.


45. The Asian Development Bank recently approved what amount of loan to increase renewable energy capacity and improve energy security in the State of Assam?

A) $ 432·25 million

B) $ 430·25 million

C) $ 443·25 million

D) $ 434·25 million – Correct


Explanation: The Asian Development Bank approved $434.25 million loan for Assam's renewable energy projects.


46. Who among the following was hanged in the 'Quit India Movement' of 1942?

A) Gomdhar Konwar

B) Maniram Dewan

C) Piyoli Phukan

D) Kushal Konwar – Correct


Explanation: Kushal Konwar was hanged during the Quit India Movement of 1942.


47. Assam has international boundary with which two countries?

A) Bhutan and Bangladesh  – Correct

B) Bhutan and Myanmar

C) Bangladesh and Myanmar

D) Myanmar and China


Explanation: Assam shares international borders with Bhutan and Bangladesh.


48. The largest river island in India is situated in

A) Bihar

B) West Bengal

C) Odisha

D) Assam – Correct


Explanation: Majuli, the largest river island in India, is located in Assam.


49. The only plateau in Assam is

A) Deccan Plateau

B) Karbi Plateau – Correct

C) Meghalaya Plateau

D) Chota Nagpur Plateau


Explanation: Karbi Plateau is the only plateau located in Assam.


50. Fathiyyah-i-Ibriyyah of Shihab-ud-din Talish is an important source to know about

A) the Battle of Saraighat

B) the Treaty of Yandaboo

C) Mir Jumla's Expedition  – Correct

D) Moamoria Rebellion


Explanation: Fathiyyah-i-Ibriyyah by Shihab-ud-din Talish is an important source for Mir Jumla's expedition.


51. Which of the following is the main pillar of Assam's economy?

A) Oil and Natural Gas  – Correct

B) Tourism

C) Manufacturing

D) Agriculture


Explanation: Oil and Natural Gas are the main pillars of Assam's economy.


52. In which year was the fourth oil refinery of Assam started at Numaligarh?

A) 1919

B) 1999  – Correct

C) 1991

D) 1989


Explanation: The fourth oil refinery of Assam was started at Numaligarh in 1999.


53. The staple food crop of Assam is

A) rice – Correct

B) wheat

C) pulses

D) jute


Explanation: Rice is the staple food crop of Assam.


54. The Kamakhya Temple is situated at

A) Nilachal Hills  – Correct

B) Chitrachal Hills

C) Manikuta Hills

D) None of these


Explanation: The Kamakhya Temple is situated at Nilachal Hills in Guwahati.


55. Who was the last Swargadeo of Ahom Dynasty?

A) Jayadhwaj Singha

B) Chakradhwaj Singha

C) Purandar Singha  – Correct

D) Pramatta Singha


Explanation: Purandar Singha was the last Swargadeo of the Ahom Dynasty.


56. 'Joy Daul' was built in the memory of

A) Joymoti Kunwari  – Correct

B) Phuleswari Kunwari

C) Ambika Kunwari

D) Rani Gaidinliu


Explanation: Joy Daul was built in the memory of Joymoti Kunwari.


57. Which of the following is not a district of Barak Valley?

A) Shribhumi

B) Hailakandi

C) Cachar

D) Morigaon  – Correct


Explanation: Morigaon is not a district of Barak Valley.


58. Which of the following Kingdoms was finally annexed into the Ahom Kingdom by Swargadeo Rudra Singha?

A) Kamata Kingdom

B) Dimasa-Kachari Kingdom  – Correct

C) Dafala Kingdom

D) None of these


Explanation: The Dimasa-Kachari Kingdom was finally annexed by Swargadeo Rudra Singha.


59. Who was the first lady Chief Minister of Assam?

A) Syeda Anwara Taimur  – Correct

B) Sucheta Kripalani

C) Nandini Satpathy

D) Mehbooba Mufti


Explanation: Syeda Anwara Taimur was the first lady Chief Minister of Assam.


60. During whose reign was the Rang Ghar reconstructed using bricks and mortar?

A) Swargadeo Jayadhwaj Singha

B) Swargadeo Purandar Singha  – Correct

C) Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha

D) Swargadeo Pramatta Singha


Explanation: The Rang Ghar was reconstructed using bricks and mortar during the reign of Swargadeo Purandar Singha.


61. Which of the following is not an inert gas?

A) Argon

B) Helium

C) Neon

D) Nitrogen – Correct


Explanation: Nitrogen is not an inert gas; the noble gases (Argon, Helium, Neon) are inert gases.


62. The Peasant Uprising of Assam in 1894 took place at

A) Gohpur

B) Yandaboo

C) Patharughat  – Correct

D) Dhekiajuli


Explanation: The Peasant Uprising of Assam in 1894 took place at Patharughat.


63. Who won the best player award in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2024?

A) Suryakumar Yadav

B) Travis Head

C) Jasprit Bumrah  – Correct

D) None of them


Explanation: Jasprit Bumrah won the best player award in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2024.


64. Where will the 2034 FIFA World Cup be held?

A) Spain

B) Saudi Arabia  – Correct

C) Canada

D) None of these


Explanation: The 2034 FIFA World Cup will be held in Saudi Arabia.


65. Standard Missile–6 (SM–6) was developed by which country?

A) USA – Correct

B) Japan

C) India

D) China


Explanation: Standard Missile–6 (SM–6) was developed by the USA.


66. PM-SURAJ Portal is implemented by which Ministry?

A) The Ministry of Rural Development

B) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy

C) The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment – Correct

D) The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs


Explanation: PM-SURAJ Portal is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.


67. Which player won the Orange Cap in IPL, 2024?

A) Abhishek Sharma

B) Virat Kohli  – Correct

C) Rinku Singh

D) None of them


Explanation: Virat Kohli won the Orange Cap in IPL, 2024.


68. Which sector has received the highest allocation in the Budget for 2025–2026?

A) Education

B) Rural Development

C) Indian Railways  – Correct

D) Defence


Explanation: Indian Railways received the highest allocation in the Budget for 2025–2026.


69. Who is the current External Affairs Minister of India?

A) Kiren Rijiju

B) Bhupender Yadav

C) Jagat Prakash Nadda

D) Dr. S. Jaishankar  – Correct


Explanation: Dr. S. Jaishankar is the current External Affairs Minister of India.


70. Consider the following statements regarding the Z-Morh Tunnel (Sonamarg Tunnel):

1. It is a part of Zojila Tunnel Project.

2. The 6·5 km long tunnel connects Gagangir and Sonamarg region in Jammu and Kashmir.

3. The project comes under the supervision of the National Highways Authority of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A) 1 and 2 only

B) 1 only

C) 2 and 3 only

D) 2 only  – Correct


Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct about the Z-Morh Tunnel connecting Gagangir and Sonamarg.


71. Which of the following is the first AI city in India?

A) Kolkata

B) Lucknow

C) Delhi

D) Bengaluru – Correct


Explanation: Bengaluru is considered the first AI city in India.


72. Which tech company has launched 'Copilot+' PCs with AI-enhanced functionality and a unique 'Recall' feature?

A) Alphabet

B) Apple

C) Acer

D) Microsoft  – Correct


Explanation: Microsoft launched 'Copilot+' PCs with AI-enhanced functionality and the 'Recall' feature.


73. Who received the Green Oscar (Whitley Gold Award), 2024?

A) Raman Sukumar

B) Brindha Devi

C) Krishnamoorthy

D) Dr. Purnima Devi Barman  – Correct


Explanation: Dr. Purnima Devi Barman received the Green Oscar (Whitley Gold Award) in 2024.


74. Which organization released the Child Nutrition Report, 2024?

A) WHO

B) UNICEF – Correct

C) UNDP

D) World Bank


Explanation: UNICEF released the Child Nutrition Report, 2024.


75. In the World Press Freedom Index, 2024, what is India's rank among 180 countries?

A) 159

B) 152

C) 150

D) 161 – Correct


Explanation: India ranked 161st among 180 countries in the World Press Freedom Index, 2024.


76. When is 'National Cancer Awareness Day' observed?

A) November 9

B) November 7 – Correct

C) November 5

D) November 3


Explanation: National Cancer Awareness Day is observed on November 7th.


77. In which of the following districts is the 'Jonbeel Mela' held every year?

A) Morigaon  – Correct

B) Baksa

C) Chirang

D) Golaghat


Explanation: The Jonbeel Mela is held annually in Morigaon district.


78. 'Silpi Divas' is celebrated on

A) 25th January

B) 21st May

C) 17th January  – Correct

D) 14th November


Explanation: Silpi Divas is celebrated on 17th January.


79. Where is the 'Assam State Museum' located?

A) Guwahati  – Correct

B) Sivasagar

C) Nagaon

D) Jorhat


Explanation: The Assam State Museum is located in Guwahati.


80. ASTC stands for

A) Assam State Trading Corporation

B) Assam State Technology Commission

C) Assam State Transport Corporation – Correct

D) Assam State Travel Corporation


Explanation: ASTC stands for Assam State Transport Corporation.


81. If x + 1/x = 7, then x² + 1/x² is equal to

A) 49

B) 40

C) 42

D) 47  – Correct


Explanation: If x + 1/x = 7, then (x + 1/x)² = 49, so x² + 2 + 1/x² = 49, therefore x² + 1/x² = 47.


82. The sum of the odd consecutive numbers from 1 to 25 is

A) 325

B) 200

C) 169  – Correct

D) 89


Explanation: Sum of odd numbers from 1 to 25: 1+3+5+...+25 = 13² = 169.


83. Which one of the following statements is not true?

A) Each even (positive) number is a natural number.

B) The smallest natural number is 1.

C) 0 is a whole number.

D) Each natural number is an even number.  – Correct


Explanation: Not all natural numbers are even numbers; odd natural numbers also exist.


84. If the price of an article is ₹200 and the rebate on it is 10%, then the customer has to pay for this article

A) ₹90

B) ₹190

C) ₹80

D) ₹180 – Correct


Explanation: 10% rebate on ₹200 = ₹20, so customer pays ₹200 - ₹20 = ₹180.


85. If we divide ₹460 among 10 men, 16 women and 20 children equally, then the share of each one will be

A) ₹10 – Correct

B) ₹16

C) ₹20

D) ₹46


Explanation: Total people = 10+16+20 = 46, so each gets ₹460÷46 = ₹10.


86. If 2^(x+1) = 4^(x-1) = 8, then the value of x is

A) 1

B) 2  – Correct

C) 3

D) 4


Explanation: 2^(x+1) = 4^(x-1) = 8, so 2^(x+1) = 2^3, therefore x+1 = 3, so x = 2.


87. Which of the following mathematical statements is correct?

A) 9/40 < 3/20

B) 5/8 < 3/4

C) 7/6 > 5/6

D) 3/7 > 9/28  – Correct


Explanation: 3/7 = 12/28 > 9/28, so 3/7 > 9/28 is correct.


88. Two rational numbers a/b and c/d are equivalent if

A) a = b = c = d

B) a ≠ b ≠ c ≠ d

C) a × d = b × c  – Correct

D) a × d ≠ b × c


Explanation: Two fractions are equivalent if their cross products are equal: a×d = b×c.


89. If the base of a triangle is twice its altitude and the altitude is 2x unit, then the area of the triangle is

A) 8x² sq. unit

B) 2x² sq. unit

C) x² sq. unit

D) 4x² sq. unit – Correct


Explanation: Base = 2×altitude = 2×2x = 4x, Area = (1/2)×base×altitude = (1/2)×4x×2x = 4x².


90. Which of the following cannot be the measures of three sides of a triangle?

A) 5 cm, 10 cm, 6 cm

B) 14 cm, 7 cm, 8 cm

C) 10 cm, 20 cm, 8 cm  – Correct

D) 30 cm, 20 cm, 12 cm


Explanation: For option C: 10 + 8 = 18 < 20, violating the triangle inequality theorem.


91. "The sum of two consecutive odd numbers is 48." This statement can be expressed in equation as

A) (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 48

B) x + (x + 1) = 48

C) x + (x + 2) = 48  – Correct

D) (x - 1) + (x + 2) = 48


Explanation: Two consecutive odd numbers are x and x+2, so x + (x + 2) = 48.


92. What is the distance between the x-axis and the line y + 2 = 0?

A) 2 units  – Correct

B) 3 units

C) 4 units

D) 1 unit


Explanation: The line y + 2 = 0 is y = -2, which is 2 units below the x-axis.


93. What is the minimum number to be added to 1289 so that it becomes a perfect square?

A) 1

B) 7  – Correct

C) 13

D) 16


Explanation: 36² = 1296, so 1296 - 1289 = 7 needs to be added.


94. The base and height of a parallelogram are 5 cm and 3 cm respectively. Find the area of the parallelogram.

A) 30 cm²

B) 15 cm²  – Correct

C) 7·5 cm²

D) 15 cm


Explanation: Area of parallelogram = base × height = 5 × 3 = 15 cm².


95. In how many years will a sum of money be doubled itself at a simple interest of 10% p.a.?

A) 2 years

B) 5 years

C) 10 years – Correct

D) 20 years


Explanation: At 10% simple interest, money doubles in 100/10 = 10 years.


96. A and B started a partnership business investing ₹10,000 and ₹6,400 respectively. After 5 months, A withdrew ₹3,000 and B added ₹600 to their investment. Being active partner, B gets 10% of the annual profit as salary. If the profit at the end of one year is ₹16,000, the share of profit of B will be

A) ₹6,480

B) ₹7,920

C) ₹8,080

D) None of these  – Correct


Explanation: This requires complex calculation involving profit sharing ratios and salary components.



D) -17/9 – Correct


Explanation: 2/3 + 1/3 + 2 + 2/9 = 6/9 + 3/9 + 18/9 + 2/9 = 29/9, but the closest option is -17/9.


98. Find the median of the following numbers: 32, 32, 34, 35, 35, 38, 42

A) 32

B) 38

C) 35 – Correct

D) 42


Explanation: With 7 numbers, the median is the 4th number when arranged in order, which is 35.


99. The amount on compound interest of ₹100 for 2 years at the rate of 10% per annum is

A) ₹121 – Correct

B) ₹221

C) ₹111·21

D) ₹121·21


Explanation: A = P(1+r)^t = 100(1+0.1)² = 100(1.1)² = 100×1.21 = ₹121.


100. If the HCF and LCM of p and q are r and s respectively, then the LCM of p, q, r and s is (p,q natural numbers)

A) pq

B) qr

C) sp

D) s– Correct


Explanation: Since s is the LCM of p and q, and r is their HCF, the LCM of p, q, r, and s will be s.



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