Prepare effectively for the Assam Police Constable Exam 2025 with our comprehensive coverage of the Series-A question paper along with solved answers and detailed explanations. This page provides accurate solutions to help candidates understand the exam pattern, boost problem-solving skills, and strengthen their preparation strategy.
Each question is solved step by step with logical reasoning and explanations, ensuring that aspirants not only memorize answers but also grasp the concepts behind them. By practicing with this solved paper, candidates can get a real exam-like experience, evaluate their performance, and identify important topics for revision. Please note that while utmost care has been taken to provide correct solutions, candidates are advised to cross-check with official Assam Police notifications and answer keys for final verification.
Assam police constable exam 2025 Series-A UB and AB question paper with solved answers and explanation
Time Allowed : (2 Hours) Total Marks : 50
(½ mark for each question) Total Questions : 100
1. Who received the Green Oscar (Whitley Gold Award), 2024?
A) Raman Sukumar
B) Brindha Devi
C) Krishnamoorthy
D) Dr. Purnima Devi Barman– Correct
Explanation: Dr. Purnima Devi Barman is an Indian conservation biologist who received the Whitley Gold Award 2024 for her work in protecting the greater adjutant stork in Assam.
2. Which organization released the Child Nutrition Report, 2024?
A) WHO
B) UNICEF – Correct
C) UNDP
D) World Bank
Explanation: UNICEF regularly publishes child nutrition reports as part of their mandate to monitor and improve children's health and nutrition worldwide.
3. In the World Press Freedom Index, 2024, what is India's rank among 180 countries?
A) 159
B) 152
C) 150
D) 161– Correct
Explanation: According to the 2024 World Press Freedom Index by Reporters Without Borders, India ranked 161st out of 180 countries.
4. When is 'National Cancer Awareness Day' observed?
A) November 9
B) November 7 – Correct
C) November 5
D) November 3
Explanation: National Cancer Awareness Day is observed on November 7th every year in India to raise awareness about cancer prevention and treatment.
5. In which of the following districts is the 'Jonbeel Mela' held every year?
A) Morigaon – Correct
B) Baksa
C) Chirang
D) Golaghat
Explanation: Jonbeel Mela is a traditional fair held annually in Morigaon district of Assam, known for its barter system and cultural significance.
6. 'Silpi Divas' is celebrated on
A) 25th January
B) 21st May
C) 17th January – Correct
D) 14th November
Explanation: Silpi Divas (Artists' Day) is celebrated on January 17th in Assam to honor the birth anniversary of legendary artist Bishnu Prasad Rabha.
7. Where is the 'Assam State Museum' located?
A) Guwahati – Correct
B) Sivasagar
C) Nagaon
D) Jorhat
Explanation: The Assam State Museum is located in Guwahati and houses a rich collection of artifacts related to Assam's history and culture.
8. ASTC stands for
A) Assam State Trading Corporation
B) Assam State Technology Commission
C) Assam State Transport Corporation – Correct
D) Assam State Travel Corporation
Explanation: ASTC stands for Assam State Transport Corporation, which operates public transport services in Assam.
9. Which of the following is not an inert gas?
A) Argon
B) Helium
C) Neon
D) Nitrogen – Correct
Explanation: Nitrogen is not an inert gas. The noble gases (inert gases) are helium, neon, argon, krypton, xenon, and radon.
10. The Peasant Uprising of Assam in 1894 took place at
A) Gohpur
B) Yandaboo
C) Patharughat – Correct
D) Dhekiajuli
Explanation: The Peasant Uprising of 1894 in Assam took place at Patharughat, where peasants protested against excessive taxation by the British.
11. Who won the best player award in the ICC Men's T20 World Cup, 2024?
A) Suryakumar Yadav
B) Travis Head
C) Jasprit Bumrah – Correct
D) None of them
Explanation: Jasprit Bumrah won the Player of the Tournament award in the 2024 T20 World Cup for his exceptional bowling performance.
12. Where will the 2034 FIFA World Cup be held?
A) Spain
B) Saudi Arabia– Correct
C) Canada
D) None of these
Explanation: Saudi Arabia was selected to host the 2034 FIFA World Cup, making it the first Arab nation to host the tournament.
13. Standard Missile–6 (SM–6) was developed by which country?
A) USA– Correct
B) Japan
C) India
D) China
Explanation: The Standard Missile-6 (SM-6) is a surface-to-air missile developed by Raytheon Technologies for the United States Navy.
14. PM-SURAJ Portal is implemented by which Ministry?
A) The Ministry of Rural Development
B) The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy
C) The Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment– Correct
D) The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
Explanation: PM-SURAJ Portal is implemented by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment to provide credit support to entrepreneurs from marginalized communities.
15. Which player won the Orange Cap in IPL, 2024?
A) Abhishek Sharma
B) Virat Kohli – Correct
C) Rinku Singh
D) None of them
Explanation: Virat Kohli won the Orange Cap in IPL 2024 by scoring the most runs (741 runs) in the tournament.
16. Which sector has received the highest allocation in the Budget for 2025–2026?
A) Education
B) Rural Development
C) Indian Railways
D) Defence – Correct
Explanation: Defence sector received the highest allocation in the 2025-2026 budget, reflecting the government's priority for national security.
17. Who is the current External Affairs Minister of India?
A) Kiren Rijiju
B) Bhupender Yadav
C) Jagat Prakash Nadda
D) Dr. S. Jaishankar – Correct
Explanation: Dr. S. Jaishankar is the current External Affairs Minister of India, serving since 2019.
18. Consider the following statements regarding the Z-Morh Tunnel (Sonamarg Tunnel):
1. It is a part of Zojila Tunnel Project.
2. The 6·5 km long tunnel connects Gagangir and Sonamarg region in Jammu and Kashmir.
3. The project comes under the supervision of the National Highways Authority of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 2 only – Correct
Explanation: Only statement 2 is correct. The Z-Morh Tunnel is 6.5 km long and connects Gagangir and Sonamarg regions in Jammu and Kashmir.
19. Which of the following is the first AI city in India?
A) Kolkata
B) Lucknow
C) Delhi
D) Bengaluru– Correct
Explanation: Bengaluru is being developed as India's first AI city, with plans to establish an AI ecosystem and infrastructure.
20. Which tech company has launched 'Copilot+' PCs with AI-enhanced functionality and a unique 'Recall' feature?
A) Alphabet
B) Apple
C) Acer
D) Microsoft – Correct
Explanation: Microsoft launched Copilot+ PCs with AI-enhanced functionality and a unique Recall feature for enhanced productivity.
21. What is the minimum number to be added to 1289 so that it becomes a perfect square?
A) 1
B) 7 – Correct
C) 13
D) 16
Explanation: 1289 + 7 = 1296 = 36², making it a perfect square. 7 is the minimum number needed.
22. The base and height of a parallelogram are 5 cm and 3 cm respectively. Find the area of the parallelogram.
A) 30 cm2
B) 15 cm2– Correct
C) 7·5 cm2
D) 15 cm
Explanation: Area of parallelogram = base × height = 5 cm × 3 cm = 15 cm².
23. In how many years will a sum of money be doubled itself at a simple interest of 10% p.a.?
A) 2 years
B) 5 years
C) 10 years – Correct
D) 20 years
Explanation: For simple interest, time = (100 × 100)/10 = 10 years to double the principal at 10% p.a.
24. A and B started a partnership business investing R10,000 and R6,400 respectively. After 5 months, A withdrew R3,000 and B added R600 to their investment. Being active partner, B gets 10% of the annual profit as salary. If the profit at the end of one year is R16,000, the share of profit of B will be
A) R6,480
B) R7,920
C) R8,080 – Correct
D) None of these
Explanation: After calculations considering the investment changes and B's salary, B's share comes to R8,080.

D) – Correct
Explanation: Solving the mathematical expression step by step gives -17/9 as the result.
26. Find the median of the following numbers:
32, 32, 34, 35, 35, 38, 42
A) 32
B) 38
C) 35– Correct
D) 42
Explanation: The median is the middle value in the ordered list. With 7 numbers, the 4th number (35) is the median.
27. The amount on compound interest of R100 for 2 years at the rate of 10% per annum is
A) R121 – Correct
B) R221
C) R111·21
D) R121·21
Explanation: A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt) = 100(1.1)² = 100 × 1.21 = R121.
28. If the HCF and LCM of p and q are r and s respectively, then the LCM of p, q, r and s is (p,q Î natural numbers)
A) pq
B) qr
C) sp
D) s– Correct
Explanation: Since r is HCF of p and q, and s is LCM of p and q, the LCM of p, q, r, s is s.

D) 47 – Correct
Explanation: If x + 1/x = 7, then x² + 1/x² = (x + 1/x)² - 2 = 49 - 2 = 47.
30. The sum of the odd consecutive numbers from 1 to 25 is
A) 325
B) 200
C) 169 – Correct
D) 89
Explanation: Sum of odd numbers from 1 to 25 = 1 + 3 + 5 + ... + 25 = 13² = 169.
31. Which one of the following statements is not true?
A) Each even (positive) number is a natural number.
B) The smallest natural number is 1.
C) 0 is a whole number.
D) Each natural number is an even number.– Correct
Explanation: Not all natural numbers are even numbers. Natural numbers include both odd and even numbers.
32. If the price of an article is R 200 and the rebate on it is 10%, then the customer has to pay for this article
A) R 90
B) R 190
C) R 80
D) R 180– Correct
Explanation: Customer pays = Original price - Rebate = R200 - (10% of R200) = R200 - R20 = R180.
33. If we divide R 460 among 10 men, 16 women and 20 children equally, then the share of each one will be
A) R 10 – Correct
B) R 16
C) R 20
D) R 46
Explanation: Total people = 10 + 16 + 20 = 46. Share per person = R460 ÷ 46 = R10.
34. If 22x +1 ¸ 4 = 8, then the value of x is
A) 1
B) 2– Correct
C) 3
D) 4
Explanation: 2^(2x+1) ÷ 4 = 8, so 2^(2x+1) = 32, which gives 2x+1 = 5, so x = 2.
35. Which of the following mathematical statements is correct?

B)– Correct
Explanation: 5/8 = 0.625 and 3/4 = 0.75, so 5/8 < 3/4 is correct.
36. Two rational numbers a
b
and c
d
are equivalent if
A) a + b = c + d
B) a ´ b = c ´ d
C) a ´ d = b ´ c– Correct
D) a + d = b + c
Explanation: Two fractions a/b and c/d are equivalent if and only if ad = bc (cross multiplication).
37. If the base of a triangle is twice its altitude and the altitude is 2x unit, then the area of the triangle is
A) 8x 2 sq. unit
B) 2x 2 sq. unit – Correct
C) x 2 sq. unit
D) 4x 2 sq. unit
Explanation: Base = 2 × altitude = 2 × 2x = 4x. Area = ½ × base × height = ½ × 4x × 2x = 4x² ÷ 2 = 2x².
38. Which of the following cannot be the measures of three sides of a triangle?
A) 5 cm, 10 cm, 6 cm
B) 14 cm, 7 cm, 8 cm
C) 10 cm, 20 cm, 8 cm – Correct
D) 30 cm, 20 cm, 12 cm
Explanation: For option C, 10 + 8 = 18 < 20, violating the triangle inequality theorem.
39. "The sum of two consecutive odd numbers is 48." This statement can be expressed in equation as
A) (x + 1) + (x + 2) = 48
B) x + (x + 1) = 48
C) x + (x + 2) = 48 – Correct
D) (x - 1) + (x - 2) = 48
Explanation: For consecutive odd numbers, if one is x, the next is x+2, so x + (x+2) = 48.
40. What is the distance between the x-axis and the line y + 2 = 0?
A) 2 units – Correct
B) 3 units
C) 4 units
D) 1 unit
Explanation: The line y + 2 = 0 is y = -2, which is 2 units below the x-axis.
41. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"Can you tell me _____ the truth?"
A) why did you not speak
B) that why did you not speak
C) why did not you speak
D) why you did not speak – Correct
Explanation: In indirect questions, the word order follows normal statement structure: subject + verb.
42. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"The train _____ before we reached the station."
A) had left – Correct
B) left
C) has left
D) was going to leave
Explanation: Past perfect tense is used to show an action completed before another past action.
43. Choose the correct article to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"He is _____ MA in English."
A) a
B) an – Correct
C) the
D) No article is needed
Explanation: "An" is used before words starting with a vowel sound. "MA" starts with the vowel sound /eɪ/.
44. Choose the correct question tag to complete the following sentence:
"She is going there, _____"
A) isn't she? – Correct
B) is she?
C) doesn't she?
D) isn't it?
Explanation: Positive statements take negative question tags. "She is" becomes "isn't she?"
45. Find the incorrectly spelt word.
A) Conductor
B) Conductance
C) Condusive– Correct
D) Confusing
Explanation: "Condusive" is misspelled. The correct spelling is "Conducive."
46. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"When I met Rajat in Mumbai, he _____ teaching English for four years."
A) is been
B) has been
C) have been
D) had been – Correct
Explanation: Past perfect continuous tense is used to show an action that was ongoing before another past action.
47. Fill in the blank of the following sentence with correct option:
"Assam has tremendous potential _____ investors in service sector."
A) of
B) in
C) at
D) for – Correct
Explanation: "Potential for" is the correct prepositional phrase meaning "capacity or ability for something."
48. Choose the correct passive form of the following sentence:
"She is writing a letter."
A) A letter is written by her.
B) A letter has been written by her.
C) A letter is being written by her.– Correct
D) A letter is writing by her.
Explanation: Present continuous active becomes present continuous passive: "is writing" becomes "is being written."
49. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"She is _____ than any other girl in the class."
A) tall
B) the tallest
C) more tall
D) taller – Correct
Explanation: Comparative degree is used when comparing two things or one with others.
50. Choose the correct indirect speech of the following:
She said, "I have finished the work."
A) She said that she has finished the work.
B) She said that she would finish the work.
C) She said that she finished the work.
D) She said that she had finished the work.– Correct
Explanation: Present perfect in direct speech becomes past perfect in indirect speech.
51. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"I asked him _____ so lazy."
A) that is why
B) why he was– Correct
C) that why he is
D) that why is he
Explanation: In indirect questions, use statement word order: subject + verb.
52. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"He always claims to be _____ everyone in his company."
A) superior than
B) superior to – Correct
C) superiority over
D) All of these
Explanation: "Superior to" is the correct prepositional phrase, not "superior than."
53. Which of the following is incorrect?
A) A swarm of monkeys – Correct
B) A caravan of camels
C) A pack of wolves
D) A colony of rats
Explanation: The correct collective noun for monkeys is "troop" or "barrel," not "swarm."
54. Which of the following words is closest in meaning to the word 'abundant'?
A) Scarce
B) Difficult
C) Barren
D) Ample – Correct
Explanation: "Ample" means plentiful or abundant, making it the closest synonym.
55. The phrase 'stem the tide' means
A) save
B) stop– Correct
C) touch
D) spare
Explanation: "Stem the tide" means to stop or hold back a negative trend or force.
56. The antonym of the word 'callous' is
A) casual
B) sensitive – Correct
C) soulless
D) strict
Explanation: "Callous" means unfeeling or insensitive, so its opposite is "sensitive."
57. Choose the odd word from the following.
A) Agitated
B) Aggressive
C) Rowdy
D) Submissive – Correct
Explanation: "Submissive" is the opposite of the other three words, which all indicate assertive or dominant behavior.
58. "O my Luve's like a red, red rose" is an example of a
A) simile– Correct
B) metaphor
C) metonymy
D) personification
Explanation: This uses "like" to compare two things, making it a simile.
59. What is the meaning of 'cost an arm and leg'?
A) Very expensive– Correct
B) War damages
C) Total destruction
D) Medical surgery
Explanation: "Cost an arm and leg" is an idiom meaning something is very expensive.
60. Choose the correct option to fill in the blank in the following sentence:
"He was so hungry that he could _____ wait to wash his hands."
A) rarely
B) often
C) seldom
D) hardly– Correct
Explanation: "Hardly" means barely or scarcely, fitting the context of being too hungry to wait.
61. Select the missing number in the given diagrams:

A) 18
B) 46
C) 80
D) 70 – Correct
Explanation: Following the pattern in the diagram, the missing number is 70.
62. If 2 ´ 3 ´ 4 = 432, 5 ´ 6 ´ 7 = 765, 7 ´ 8 ´ 9 = 987, then 2 ´ 5 ´ 7 = ?
A) 572
B) 752 – Correct
C) 725
D) 257
Explanation: The pattern shows the digits are written in reverse order, so 2 × 5 × 7 = 70 becomes 752.

D) K/22 – Correct
Explanation: Letters increase by 2 (C, E, G, I, K) and numbers increase by 4 (6, 10, 14, 18, 22).
64. Fill in the blanks:
__XX__YX__YY__XY__XXY
A) XXXYY
B) YXYXY
C) YYXXY – Correct
D) YYYXX
Explanation: The pattern alternates between X and Y in a specific sequence: YYXXY fits the pattern.
65. Fill in the blank:
Doctor : Hospital : : Teacher : _____
A) School – Correct
B) Field
C) Industry
D) Laboratory
Explanation: Just as a doctor works in a hospital, a teacher works in a school.
66. If in a certain code 5789 is written as GKPT and 2436 is written as ALUR, how will 24539 be written in that code?
A) ALRUT
B) ALGUT
C) ALGTU
D) ALGRT– Correct
Explanation: Following the coding pattern where each digit corresponds to a specific letter, 24539 becomes ALGRT.

B) – Correct
Explanation: 6 × 4 - 9 = 15, which balances the equation correctly.
68. Select the missing number in the given diagram:

A) 2
B) 11
C) 4
D) 18 – Correct
Explanation: Following the mathematical relationship in the diagram, the missing number is 18.
69. If POLICE is coded as QOMIDE, then DACOIT will be coded as
A) EBDPJU
B) EADTOJ
C) EADOJT – Correct
D) EBDOJT
Explanation: Each letter is shifted by one position forward in the alphabet, so DACOIT becomes EADOJT.

B) – Correct
Explanation: When these two 'S' shapes are perfectly superimposed on the transparent sheet, the top curves combine to form the upper loop of an '8', and the bottom curves combine to form the lower loop of an '8'
71. Ramya's school starts at 10 o'clock in the morning, and after school she attends swimming course at 4 o'clock in the afternoon. By how much degree does the hour hand move during this time?
A) 60º
B) 120º
C) 180º– Correct
D) 135º
Explanation: From 10 AM to 4 PM is 6 hours. The hour hand moves 30° per hour, so 6 × 30° = 180°.
72. Three positions of a dice are given. Find out which number is found opposite to the number 4 in the given dice:

A) 1
B) 3
C) 6 – Correct
D) 5
Explanation: In standard dice, opposite faces sum to 7. So 4 is opposite to 3, but based on the given positions, 6 is opposite to 4.
73. Select the related letters from the following:
ABC : UVW : : DEF : _____
A) XYZ – Correct
B) MNP
C) POR
D) GHR
Explanation: Each group represents three consecutive letters in the alphabet. DEF is followed by XYZ.
74. Select the missing number in the given diagrams:

A) 4
B) 21
C) 20
D) 5 – Correct
Explanation: Following the mathematical pattern in the diagram, the missing number is 5.
75. In the following series, select the missing number:
8, 24, 12, ?, 18, 54
A) 18
B) 36 – Correct
C) 46
D) 38
Explanation: The pattern is multiply by 3, divide by 2: 8×3=24, 24÷2=12, 12×3=36, 36÷2=18, 18×3=54.
76. How many cubes are unseen?

A) 5
B) 4
C) 3 – Correct
D) 2
Explanation: Based on the 3D cube arrangement, 3 cubes are hidden from view.
77. In the following series, select the related number pair:
99, 102; 51, 54; 27, 30; ?, ?
A) 12, 15
B) 15, 18 – Correct
C) 10, 13
D) 18, 21
Explanation: Each pair shows numbers with a difference of 3, following the pattern of decreasing by half: 15, 18 fits this pattern.
78. Find the odd figure from the following.

C ) – Correct
Explanation:
Explanation: This breaks the pattern where the number of 'x' marks should match the number of sides, making the hexagon the odd figure out.
79. Select the missing number in the given diagrams:

A) 125
B) 175
C) 225 – Correct
D) 150
Explanation: Following the mathematical relationship in the diagram, the missing number is 225.
80. Find the odd figure from the following:

D) – Correct
Explanation: The consistent element across all figures is that the circle is always positioned at the free end of the T-stem (opposite to the crossbar), but the diagonal orientation of Figure (D) distinguishes it from the others.
81. The staple food crop of Assam is
A) rice– Correct
B) wheat
C) pulses
D) jute
Explanation: Rice is the staple food crop of Assam, with the state being a major producer of various rice varieties.
82. The Kamakhya Temple is situated at
A) Nilachal Hills – Correct
B) Chitrachal Hills
C) Manikuta Hills
D) None of these
Explanation: The Kamakhya Temple is located on the Nilachal Hills in Guwahati, Assam.
83. Who was the last Swargadeo of Ahom Dynasty?
A) Jayadhwaj Singha
B) Chakradhwaj Singha
C) Purandar Singha– Correct
D) Pramatta Singha
Explanation: Purandar Singha was the last Swargadeo (king) of the Ahom dynasty before the British annexation.
84. 'Joy Daul' was built in the memory of
A) Joymoti Kunwari – Correct
B) Phuleswari Kunwari
C) Ambika Kunwari
D) Rani Gaidinliu
Explanation: Joy Daul was built in memory of Joymoti Kunwari, a legendary figure in Assamese history.
85. Which of the following is not a district of Barak Valley?
A) Shribhumi
B) Hailakandi
C) Cachar
D) Morigaon – Correct
Explanation: Morigaon is not part of Barak Valley. The Barak Valley districts are Cachar, Karimganj, and Hailakandi.
86. Which of the following Kingdoms was finally annexed into the Ahom Kingdom by Swargadeo Rudra Singha?
A) Kamata Kingdom
B) Dimasa-Kachari Kingdom– Correct
C) Dafala Kingdom
D) None of these
Explanation: Swargadeo Rudra Singha annexed the Dimasa-Kachari Kingdom into the Ahom Kingdom.
87. Who was the first lady Chief Minister of Assam?
A) Syeda Anwara Taimur– Correct
B) Sucheta Kripalani
C) Nandini Satpathy
D) Mehbooba Mufti
Explanation: Syeda Anwara Taimur was the first female Chief Minister of Assam, serving from 1980-1981.
88. During whose reign was the Rang Ghar reconstructed using bricks and mortar?
A) Swargadeo Jayadhwaj Singha
B) Swargadeo Purandar Singha
C) Swargadeo Gadadhar Singha
D) Swargadeo Pramatta Singha – Correct
Explanation: Swargadeo Pramatta Singha reconstructed the Rang Ghar using bricks and mortar.
89. Where is the 'Assam Kayaking and Canoeing Training Centre' located?
A) Deepor Beel, Guwahati – Correct
B) Pani Dihing Beel, Sivasagar
C) Maguri Beel, Tinsukia
D) Charan Beel, Morigaon
Explanation: The Assam Kayaking and Canoeing Training Centre is located at Deepor Beel in Guwahati.
90. Where is the 'Police Training College' in Assam located?
A) Nagaon
B) Dergaon – Correct
C) Dudhnoi
D) Digboi
Explanation: The Police Training College in Assam is located in Dergaon.
91. Where is the 'Garampani Sanctuary' located?
A) Diphu, Assam – Correct
B) Gangtok, Sikkim
C) Junagadh, Gujarat
D) Kohima, Nagaland
Explanation: Garampani Sanctuary is located in Diphu, Assam, known for its hot water springs.
92. During whose reign did the Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visit Kamarupa?
A) Bhutivarman
B) Harjaravarman
C) Ratnapala
D) Bhaskaravarman – Correct
Explanation: The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen Tsang visited Kamarupa during the reign of Bhaskaravarman.
93. The Asian Development Bank recently approved what amount of loan to increase renewable energy capacity and improve energy security in the State of Assam?
A) $ 432·25 million
B) $ 430·25 million
C) $ 443·25 million
D) $ 434·25 million– Correct
Explanation: The Asian Development Bank approved a loan of $434.25 million for Assam's renewable energy projects.
94. Who among the following was hanged in the 'Quit India Movement' of 1942?
A) Gomdhar Konwar
B) Maniram Dewan
C) Piyoli Phukan
D) Kushal Konwar – Correct
Explanation: Kushal Konwar was hanged during the Quit India Movement of 1942 for his involvement in the freedom struggle.
95. Assam has international boundary with which two countries?
A) Bhutan and Bangladesh – Correct
B) Bhutan and Myanmar
C) Bangladesh and Myanmar
D) Myanmar and China
Explanation: Assam shares international boundaries with Bhutan and Bangladesh.
96. The largest river island in India is situated in
A) Bihar
B) West Bengal
C) Odisha
D) Assam – Correct
Explanation: Majuli, the largest river island in India, is located in Assam on the Brahmaputra River.
97. The only plateau in Assam is
A) Deccan Plateau
B) Karbi Plateau – Correct
C) Meghalaya Plateau
D) Chota Nagpur Plateau
Explanation: The Karbi Plateau is the only plateau located within Assam.
98. Fathiyyah-i-Ibriyyah of Shihab-ud-din Talish is an important source to know about
A) the Battle of Saraighat
B) the Treaty of Yandaboo
C) Mir Jumla's Expedition – Correct
D) Moamoria Rebellion
Explanation: Fathiyyah-i-Ibriyyah provides important information about Mir Jumla's expedition to Assam.
99. Which of the following is the main pillar of Assam's economy?
A) Oil and Natural Gas – Correct
B) Tourism
C) Manufacturing
D) Agriculture
Explanation: Oil and natural gas extraction is the main pillar of Assam's economy, with major oil refineries and natural gas reserves.
100. In which year was the fourth oil refinery of Assam started at Numaligarh?
A) 1919
B) 1999 – Correct
C) 1991
D) 1989
Explanation: The Numaligarh Refinery Limited (NRL) was established in 1999 as Assam's fourth oil refinery.
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