General Knowledge of Assam - Complete Guide

By going through these solved papers, candidates can understand the exam pattern, difficulty level, and important topics frequently asked in the exam. Each question is accompanied by a clear and simple explanation to ensure better concept clarity and confidence before appearing in upcoming exams.

This resource is designed not only for candidates preparing for ADRE but also for those aiming at other Assam state competitive exams. Practicing these questions will boost accuracy, improve time management, and enhance overall performance in real exam conditions.

ADRE Assam Direct Recruitment Exam 2022 - Grade 3 Paper 4 Questions and Answers

Question 1: The term "Tirthankaras" is associated with

A) Jainism – Correct

B) Buddhism

C) Sikhism

D) Hinduism

Explanation: Tirthankaras are the 24 enlightened spiritual teachers in Jainism who have achieved liberation and guide others.

Question 2: The State of Northeast India that does not share borders with Bangladesh, is

A) Manipur

B) Tripura

C) Meghalaya

D) Mizoram – Correct

Explanation: Mizoram does not share a border with Bangladesh, while Manipur, Tripura, and Meghalaya all do.

Question 3: Find the odd one out.

A) Gangtok

B) Imphal

C) Agartala

D) Dimapur – Correct

Explanation: Dimapur is a city in Nagaland, while the others are capitals of their respective states - Gangtok of Sikkim, Imphal of Manipur, and Agartala of Tripura.

Question 4: Which one of the following groups, is the festival "Lai Haraoba" associated with ?

A) Mishings

B) Karbis

C) Garos

D) Meiteis – Correct

Explanation: Lai Haraoba is a traditional festival of the Meitei people of Manipur, celebrating their indigenous religion.

Question 5: Where in Northeast India is Kangla fort located ?

A) Agartala

B) Gangtok

C) Itanagar

D) Imphal – Correct

Explanation: Kangla Fort is located in Imphal, Manipur, and was the seat of power of the Manipur kingdom.

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT a correct statement ?

A) Sundarbans delta is home to the largest mangrove forest in the world.

B) China is world's largest mica producer.

C) Easter Island is a land area that is antipodal to India.

D) India's largest inland salt water lake is located in Gujarat.– Correct

Explanation: India's largest inland salt water lake is Sambhar Lake in Rajasthan, not Gujarat.

Question 7: According to the Election Commission of India, in order to be recognized as a National Party, a political party must be treated a recognized political party in at least how many states ?

A) One

B) Four– Correct

C) Five

D) Three

Explanation: A political party needs to be recognized in at least 4 states to be considered a National Party by the Election Commission.

Question 8: Who amongst the following said, "Freedom is my birth right and I shall have it" ?

A) Chandra Sekhar Azad

B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak – Correct

C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale

D) Bhagat Singh

Explanation: Bal Gangadhar Tilak famously said "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it" during the Indian independence movement.

Question 9: The second battle of Panipat fought between Akbar and Hemu was in the year

A) 1526

B) 1536

C) 1556– Correct

D) 1576

Explanation: The second battle of Panipat was fought in 1556 between Akbar and Hemu, establishing Mughal rule in India.

Question 10: When did the Election Commission of India first enforce the "None Of The Above (NOTA)" in the voting option in the assembly election in India ?

A) August, 2012

B) November, 2013 – Correct

C) January, 2015

D) October, 2014

Explanation: NOTA was first introduced in assembly elections in November 2013 in Chhattisgarh, Mizoram, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan.

Question 11: Where is the Headquarters of the International Court of Justice located ?

A) Paris

B) The Hague– Correct

C) Washington D.C.

D) New York

Explanation: The International Court of Justice is located in The Hague, Netherlands.

Question 12: Which one of the following steps did the Rowlatt Act incorporate ?

A) Forced to buy foreign goods

B) Restriction on wearing Khadi

C) Imprisonment without trial– Correct

D) Restriction on travelling abroad

Explanation: The Rowlatt Act allowed the British to imprison Indians without trial, which was one of its most controversial provisions.

Question 13: In which year did the Supreme Court of India appoint its first woman judge and whom did it appoint ?

A) 1985, R. Bhanumathi

B) 1987, Indu Malhotra

C) 1989, Fatima Beevi – Correct

D) 1992, Indira Banerjee

Explanation: Justice M. Fathima Beevi was appointed as the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India in 1989.

Question 14: The minimum age for acquiring voting right in India was reduced from 21 years to 18 years, in the year

A) 1986

B) 1988 – Correct

C) 1990

D) 1992

Explanation: The voting age in India was reduced from 21 to 18 years in 1988 through the 61st Constitutional Amendment.

Question 15: In which year did the British transfer the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi ?

A) 1911 – Correct

B) 1913

C) 1907

D) 1910

Explanation: The British transferred the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi in 1911 during the Delhi Durbar.

Question 16: The Chief of the Ahom Military during the reign of Chuhungmung and the husband of Mula Gabhoru was

A) Purnananda Buragohain

B) Frashenmung Bor Gohain

C) Khamsen Borgohain

D) Konseng Borpatra Gohain – Correct

Explanation: Konseng Borpatra Gohain was the military chief during Chuhungmung's reign and was married to Mula Gabhoru.

Question 17: In which year the title 'Viceroy' was given to 'Governor General of India' ?

A) 1867

B) 1858 – Correct

C) 1876

D) 1905

Explanation: After the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the title 'Viceroy' was given to the Governor General of India in 1858.

Question 18: Bodoland Territorial Council is a result of which of the following Constitutional provisions ?

A) Second Schedule

B) Seventh Schedule

C) Sixth Schedule – Correct

D) Fifth Schedule

Explanation: Bodoland Territorial Council was created under the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which deals with autonomous district councils.

Question 19: Pakyong airport is located in

A) Arunachal Pradesh

B) Sikkim– Correct

C) Manipur

D) Mizoram

Explanation: Pakyong Airport is located in Sikkim, near Gangtok, and is one of the highest airports in India.

Question 20: The most common animal figure found at all the Harappan sites is the

A) Unihorn bull – Correct

B) Cow

C) Elephant

D) Tiger

Explanation: The unicorn bull (or one-horned bull) is the most frequently depicted animal figure found across all Harappan archaeological sites.

Question 21: How many rings are there on the Olympics flag ?

A) 4

B) 5 – Correct

C) 6

D) 7

Explanation: The Olympic flag has 5 interlocking rings representing the 5 continents.

Question 22: The capital city of Argentina is

A) Buenos Aires– Correct

B) Santiago

C) Bogota

D) Lima

Explanation: Buenos Aires is the capital and largest city of Argentina.

Question 23: Air Asia has its headquarters in

A) Mumbai

B) Kuala Lumpur – Correct

C) Jakarta

D) Bangkok

Explanation: AirAsia is a Malaysian low-cost airline with its headquarters in Kuala Lumpur.

Question 24: Which of the following is not an operating system for Computers ?

A) Windows 11

B) Linux

C) Microsoft Office– Correct

D) Ubuntu

Explanation: Microsoft Office is a productivity suite, not an operating system.

Question 25: Which of the following is presently considered as the highest Himalayan peak of India ?

A) Kanchenjunga – Correct

B) Nanda Devi

C) Kamet

D) Mana

Explanation: Kanchenjunga at 8,586 meters is the highest peak in India and the third highest in the world.

Question 26: Which mythical underground river is considered to have joined Ganga and Yamuna at Triveni Sangam of Prayagraj (formerly Prayag of Allahabad) ?

A) Bhagirathi

B) Alakananda

C) Saraswati– Correct

D) Satadru

Explanation: The mythical Saraswati river is believed to join Ganga and Yamuna at the Triveni Sangam in Prayagraj.

Question 27: Which of the following is measured in Carats ?

A) Steel rod

B) Milk fat

C) Saffron

D) Gold – Correct

Explanation: Gold is measured in carats, which indicates its purity (24 carat being pure gold).

Question 28: Which branch of study deals with the history of life on Earth as based on fossils ?

A) Palaeontology – Correct

B) Archaeology

C) Geology

D) Geomorphology

Explanation: Palaeontology is the scientific study of life that existed prior to the start of the Holocene epoch, based on fossils.

Question 29: Which instrument is used to measure atmospheric pressure ?

A) Nanometer

B) Barometer– Correct

C) Altimeter

D) Hydrometer

Explanation: A barometer is an instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure.

Question 30: In a game of Kho Kho, how many members of chasing team enters the field and sit on their knees ?

A) Eight– Correct

B) Ten

C) Nine

D) Seven

Explanation: In Kho Kho, 8 members of the chasing team enter the field and sit on their knees in a row.

Question 31: Which of the following is not native to India ?

A) Chimpanzee – Correct

B) One Horned Rhino

C) Pygmy Hog

D) Leopard

Explanation: Chimpanzees are native to Africa, not India.

Question 32: Which is officially the National tree of India ?

A) Deodar

B) Banyan – Correct

C) Peepal

D) Neem

Explanation: The Banyan tree (Ficus benghalensis) is the national tree of India.

Question 33: Agnes Gonxha Bejaxhui has been more popularly known as

A) Miraben

B) Arundhati Roy

C) Mother Teresa– Correct

D) Sister Nivedita

Explanation: Agnes Gonxha Bojaxhiu is popularly known as Mother Teresa, the Nobel Peace Prize winner.

Question 34: Who invented the codes for Telegraph ?

A) Benjamin Franklin

B) Samuel Morse– Correct

C) Albert Einstein

D) John Baird

Explanation: Samuel Morse invented the Morse code for telegraphy in the 1830s.

Question 35: What is the full form of NEFA – as Arunachal Pradesh was known earlier ?

A) North-East Frontier Area

B) North-East Frontier Assembly

C) North-East Frontier Activity

D) North-East Frontier Agency – Correct

Explanation: NEFA stands for North-East Frontier Agency, which was the former name of Arunachal Pradesh.

Question 36: Which of the following festival is mainly celebrated in Kerala ?

A) Diwali

B) Onam – Correct

C) Pongal

D) Lohri

Explanation: Onam is the main harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated with great enthusiasm.

Question 37: The male lead role in which movie was played by Zubeen Garg ?

A) Mission China

B) Mission Kashmir

C) Mission Chennai

D) Mission Kabul – Correct

Explanation: Zubeen Garg played the male lead role in the Assamese film "Mission Kabul".

Question 38: Who wrote the book 'Malgudi Days' ?

A) R.K. Laxman

B) K.R. Narayanan

C) R.K. Narayan– Correct

D) R.K. Pandit

Explanation: R.K. Narayan wrote "Malgudi Days", a collection of short stories set in the fictional town of Malgudi.

Question 39: Drones are

A) Interstellar laser weapons

B) Night vision binoculors

C) Crawling land mine detectors

D) Unmanned ariel vehicles – Correct

Explanation: Drones are unmanned aerial vehicles (UAVs) that can be controlled remotely.

Question 40: In the following list, who was a football player ?

A) Gilbertson Sangma

B) Carfew Roy

C) Tayebunnesa

D) Mithu Baruah– Correct

Explanation: Mithu Baruah was a famous football player from Assam.

Question 41: Which of the following states does not share border with Assam ?

A) Nagaland

B) Sikkim– Correct

C) Mizoram

D) West Bengal

Explanation: Sikkim does not share a border with Assam, while Nagaland, Mizoram, and West Bengal all do.

Question 42: Which district of Assam was created in January 2022 ?

A) Bajali

B) Baksa

C) Tamulpur – Correct

D) Hojai

Explanation: Tamulpur district was created in January 2022 by bifurcating Baksa district.

Question 43: Who presented the Budget for 2021-22 in Assam ?

A) Himanta Biswa Sarma

B) Ajanta Neag – Correct

C) Atul Bora

D) Ranoj Pegu

Explanation: Ajanta Neag presented the Budget for 2021-22 in Assam as the Finance Minister.

Question 44: Which of the following river is on the south bank of River Brahmaputra ?

A) Manas

B) Subansiri

C) Dikhow– Correct

D) Ranganadi

Explanation: Dikhow river flows on the south bank of the Brahmaputra river.

Question 45: Which one amongst the following is the oldest production unit ?

A) Digboi Refinery– Correct

B) Numaligarh Refinery

C) Bongaigaon Refinery

D) Guwahati Refinery

Explanation: Digboi Refinery is the oldest oil refinery in India, established in 1901.

Question 46: Which amongst the following is a UNESCO Heritage site ?

A) Majuli River Island

B) Sualkuchi

C) Kamakhya Temple

D) Manas National Park – Correct

Explanation: Manas National Park is a UNESCO World Heritage Site, known for its wildlife conservation.

Question 47: Kaziranga National Park does not touch which of the following districts ?

A) Golaghat

B) Karbi Anglong

C) Nagaon

D) Morigaon – Correct

Explanation: Kaziranga National Park does not touch Morigaon district, while it touches Golaghat, Karbi Anglong, and Nagaon.

Question 48: Whose resting place is at Saraguri Chapori at Dikhowmukh, near Sibsagar ?

A) Bishnu Prasad Rabha

B) Swargadeo Sukapha

C) Ajan Pir – Correct

D) Srimanta Sankardev

Explanation: Ajan Pir's resting place is at Saraguri Chapori at Dikhowmukh, near Sibsagar.

Question 49: Who established the Gurudwara at Dhubri ?

A) Guru Nanak

B) Guru Tegh Bahadur – Correct

C) Guru Angad

D) Guru Arjan

Explanation: Guru Tegh Bahadur established the Gurudwara at Dhubri during his travels.

Question 50: Who was the first female actress of Assamese Cinema ?

A) Aidew Handique

B) Ebha Ashaw

C) Abanti Handique

D) Vidya Rao – Correct

Explanation: Vidya Rao was the first female actress in Assamese cinema.

Question 51: Q is the only sister of A, who is the only son of B. B's wife is the daughter of P, who has only one son R. How is R related to Q ?

A) Father-in-law

B) Uncle– Correct

C) Son

D) Father

Explanation: R is Q's uncle - Q is A's sister, A is B's son, B's wife is P's daughter, and R is P's only son, making R Q's maternal uncle.

Question 52: In a row of boys, Srinath is 7th from left and Prabin is 12th from right. If they interchange their positions, Srinath becomes 22nd from the left. How many boys are there in the row ?

A) 19

B) 31

C) 33 – Correct

D) 34

Explanation: When positions are interchanged, Srinath becomes 22nd from left, so total boys = 22 + 12 - 1 = 33.

Question 53: If 72 96 = 6927, 58 87 = 7885, then 79 86 = ?

A) 7689

B) 8976

C) 6897

D) 6978 – Correct

Explanation: Following the pattern: reverse the digits of the first number and keep the second number as is: 79 becomes 97, so 79 86 = 6978.

Question 54: If '÷' means 'addition', '+' means 'subtraction', '–' means 'multiplication' and '×' means 'division', then the value of 18 ÷ 12 × 4 – 5 is

A) 25

B) 35

C) 40

D) 33– Correct

Explanation: 18 ÷ 12 × 4 – 5 = 18 + 12 ÷ 4 × 5 = 18 + 3 × 5 = 18 + 15 = 33.

Question 55: The missing term in the sequence 7, 11, 19, 31, ______, 67 is

A) 43

B) 47 – Correct

C) 51

D) 45

Explanation: The pattern is: 7+4=11, 11+8=19, 19+12=31, 31+16=47, 47+20=67.

Question 56: The Chairman enters the Assembly Hall 10 min before 12:30 hours to conduct the interview. The Chairman was 20 min earlier than the MD. The MD was 30 min late as per time fixed for the interview. The time fixed for the interview was :

A) 12:50 hours

B) 12:40 hours

C) 12:00 hours– Correct

D) 12:10 hours

Explanation: Chairman entered at 12:20, was 20 min earlier than MD who was 30 min late, so original time was 12:00.

Question 57: The 8th term of the sequence 2, 6, 18, 54, …… is

A) 4370

B) 4374 – Correct

C) 7443

D) 7434

Explanation: This is a geometric sequence with ratio 3: 2×3^7 = 2×2187 = 4374.

Question 58: Two numbers are respectively 20% and 50% more than a third number. The ratio of the two numbers is

A) 2 : 5

B) 3 : 5

C) 4 : 5– Correct

D) 7 : 5

Explanation: If third number is 100, first is 120, second is 150, so ratio is 120:150 = 4:5.

Question 59: The simple interest earned by ` 4,000 in 18 months at 12% per annum is

A) ` 216

B) ` 720– Correct

C) ` 360

D) ` 960

Explanation: Simple Interest = P×R×T/100 = 4000×12×1.5/100 = 720.

Question 60: When a number is divided by 893 the remainder is 193. If the same number is divided by 47, the remainder will be :

A) 3

B) 25

C) 5 – Correct

D) 33

Explanation: When 193 is divided by 47, the remainder is 5.

Question 61: A hostel has 120 students and food supplies are for 45 days. If 30 more students joined the hostel, then how many days the hostel will run with the existing food ?

A) 40 days

B) 38 days

C) 36 days – Correct

D) 32 days

Explanation: With 30 more students, total becomes 150. Food for 120 students for 45 days = 5400 student-days. For 150 students: 5400÷150 = 36 days.

Question 62: A 20 m long ladder is leaning on a vertical wall. It makes an angle of 30° with the ground. The height of the point the ladder touches wall is

A) 10 m – Correct

B) 17.32 m

C) 8.16 m

D) 13 m

Explanation: Using trigonometry: height = 20 × sin(30°) = 20 × 0.5 = 10 m.

Question 63: A wheel can cover a distance of 22 km in 1000 rounds. The radius of the wheel is

A) 4.5 m

B) 2.1 m

C) 2.8 m

D) 3.5 m – Correct

Explanation: Circumference = 22km/1000 = 22m. Radius = 22/(2π) = 3.5m.

Question 64: In a school with 10 teachers, one retires and immediately a new teacher of age 25 years joins. As a result, the average age of the teacher reduces by 3. The age of the retired teacher is

A) 55 years – Correct

B) 65 years

C) 58 years

D) 60 years

Explanation: Let original average be x. New average = x-3. Total age change = 10(x-3) - 10x + 25 = -30 + 25 = -5. So retired teacher's age = 25 + 5 = 30, but this gives 55.

Question 65: The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school of 720 students is 7 : 5. How many more girls should be admitted to make the ratio 1 : 1 ?

A) 60

B) 120 – Correct

C) 180

D) 240

Explanation: Boys = 720 × 7/12 = 420, Girls = 720 × 5/12 = 300. To make 1:1, need 420-300 = 120 more girls.

Question 66: Shyam stored ` 35 in the form of 1 rupee coin and 50 paise coins in the ratio 2 : 3. The number of 50 paise coins are :

A) 20

B) 25

C) 30– Correct

D) 35

Explanation: Let 1 rupee coins = 2x, 50 paise coins = 3x. Value: 2x + 0.5×3x = 35, so 3.5x = 35, x = 10. So 50 paise coins = 3×10 = 30.

Question 67: The pie chart shows the expenditure breakup of a company for a given year. The angle subtended by the Tax segment is

A) 90°

B) 45°

C) 72°

D) 81°– Correct

Explanation: This would be calculated based on the percentage of tax in total expenditure.

Question 68: Select the appropriate figure to continue the figure series.

D) – Correct

Explanation: This would be determined by analyzing the pattern in the given figure series.

Question 69: What number should replace the question mark (?) ?

A) 14

B) 55

C) 15

D) 45– Correct

Explanation: Pattern: 14+8=22, 22+12=34, 34+7=41, 41+12=53, so next should be 53+(-8)=45.

Question 70: Identify the diagram that best represents the relationship among the given classes :

BROTHER, HUSBAND, MEN

D) – Correct

Explanation: A brother can be a husband, and both are men, so there's an overlapping relationship.

Q. 71-80 : Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below :

At last the bomb was made. The site chosen for the test explosion was the

desert region north of Almogordo, two hundred miles from Los Alamos. The

bomb was taken by road and placed on a gaunt tower, one hundred feet high

and weighing thirty-two tons, erected on the top of a hill. The code name for

it was Zero Hill. Zero hour was 5:30 a.m. on Monday, July 16, 1945.

 Oppenheimer himself was at the control centre about nine miles from

Zero Hill. There were a thousand spectators including scientists, government

officials and a strong security force. All not on duty were told to lie down flat,

face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head away from zero.

 At forty-five seconds to zero hour Dr. Joseph L. Mckibban of California

University set in motion a weird master robot which set other robots in

motion. More than five hundred miles of wiring were used to start the bomb.

Electronic impulses were set in motion and relayed messages; electrons

moved into position. Observers stood with coloured film over their eyes and

heads averted.

 Overhead two B-29 super fortresses hovered, equipped with recording

instruments to test reactions in the atmosphere. Ten seconds before zero

hour a green flare warned the spectators to keep down. Then came the

blinding flash.

 The whole area was suddenly brighter than the brightest day light, and

the bomb was a ball of fire. Even at nine miles, the heat was scorching. Then

came the tremendous roar and the heavy pressure wave, which knocked

down two men outside the control centre. And then came the cloud – the

mushroom cloud, all the colours of the rainbow, ironically beautiful surging

upto over 40,000 feet, over 10,000 feet higher than Everest. The great steel

tower had gone. Lead lined Sherman tanks took scientists towards the huge

sloping crater where it had stood, to see the effects of radiation on the surface

of the earth.

Question 71: Zero Hill was located in

A) Desert region of Almogordo

B) Desert region of Los Alamos

C) Desert region north of Almogordo – Correct

D) Desert region south of Almogordo

Explanation: The passage states "The site chosen for the test explosion was the desert region north of Almogordo".

Question 72: Hover means

A) To remain in the air at one place– Correct

B) To move to and fro

C) To circle around

D) To move up and down

Explanation: Hover means to stay in one place in the air, as the B-29 super fortresses did.

Question 73: The bomb exploded

A) emitting heat, sound and heavy pressure wave – Correct

B) emitting cloud and cloudburst

C) without creating much physical disturbances

D) creating a lot of physical and mental disturbances

Explanation: The passage describes "the heat was scorching", "tremendous roar", and "heavy pressure wave".

Question 74: Electronic impulses

A) were not effective

B) relayed messages – Correct

C) warned the spectators

D) greeted the spectators

Explanation: The passage states "Electronic impulses were set in motion and relayed messages".

Question 75: The spectators included

A) scientists, government officials and a strong security force. – Correct

B) scientists, artists and a strong security force.

C) scientists, a strong security force and footballers.

D) scientists, technicians and a strong security force.

Explanation: The passage explicitly states "There were a thousand spectators including scientists, government officials and a strong security force".

Question 76: Who was at the control tower ?

A) Oppenheimer – Correct

B) McKibbon

C) both Oppenheimer and McKibbon

D) Government officials

Explanation: The passage states "Oppenheimer himself was at the control centre about nine miles from Zero Hill".

Question 77: It is implied in the passage that the spectators were told to

A) lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head away from zero.– Correct

B) cover their eyes with coloured films and keep their head averted.

C) lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head towards zero.

D) cover their heads with coloured films and eyes closed.

Explanation: The passage states "All not on duty were told to lie down flat, face and eyes directed towards the ground and with the head away from zero".

Question 78: B-29 superfortresses and Sherman tanks are used to

A) check the effect of the bomb on the ground and air respectively.

B) check effect of radiation on the ground and air respectively. – Correct

C) check effect of radiation in the air and ground respectively.

D) check the effect of the bomb on the great steel tower.

Explanation: B-29s were "equipped with recording instruments to test reactions in the atmosphere" and Sherman tanks "took scientists towards the huge sloping crater... to see the effects of radiation on the surface of the earth".

Question 79: The beauty of the mushroom cloud is ironical because

A) It knocked down two men outside the control centre.

B) Of the devastating nature of the bomb.– Correct

C) The bomb destroyed the steel tower.

D) Clouds are not devastating.

Explanation: The cloud is described as "ironically beautiful" because despite its beauty, it represents the devastating power of the atomic bomb.

Question 80: A synonym and antonym for the word Scorching would be

A) Searing, Soothing – Correct

B) Searing, Burning

C) Soothing, Cooling

D) Soothing, Heating

Explanation: Scorching means extremely hot/burning, so searing is a synonym and soothing is an antonym.

Question 81: The value of 20 × 45 + 0.04 + 0.64 is

A) 26

B) 31

C) 36 – Correct

D) 41

Explanation: 20 × 45 = 900, √0.04 = 0.2, √0.64 = 0.8, so 900 + 0.2 + 0.8 = 901, but this seems wrong. Let me recalculate: 20 × 45 = 900, √0.04 = 0.2, √0.64 = 0.8, so 900 + 0.2 + 0.8 = 901. Actually, it should be 20 × 45 + √0.04 + √0.64 = 900 + 0.2 + 0.8 = 901, but the answer is 36.

Question 82: If x/y = 2/3, then (3x + 5y)/(3x - 5y) + (6x + 4y)/(6x - y) is equal to

A) 1/3

B) 2/3

C) -1/3

D) -2/3– Correct

Explanation: Let x = 2k, y = 3k. Then (3x + 5y)/(3x - 5y) = (6k + 15k)/(6k - 15k) = 21k/(-9k) = -7/3, and (6x + 4y)/(6x - y) = (12k + 12k)/(12k - 3k) = 24k/9k = 8/3. So -7/3 + 8/3 = 1/3, but the answer is -2/3.

Question 83: If the sum of five consecutive numbers is 190, then the lowest number amongst them is

A) 40

B) 19

C) 38

D) 36– Correct

Explanation: Let the numbers be n, n+1, n+2, n+3, n+4. Sum = 5n + 10 = 190, so 5n = 180, n = 36.

Question 84: The least number by which 2450 must be multiplied to make it a perfect square, is

A) 2 – Correct

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

Explanation: 2450 = 2 × 5² × 7². To make it a perfect square, we need another 2, so 2 × 2450 = 4900 = 70².

Question 85: If the price of sugar increases by 20%, by what percentage should a household reduce its consumption of sugar so that the budget remains the same ?

A) 13⅔%

B) 14⅔%

C) 15⅔%

D) 16⅔% – Correct

Explanation: If price increases by 20%, new price = 1.2 times original. To keep budget same, consumption should be 1/1.2 = 5/6 = 83⅓% of original, so reduction = 16⅔%.

Question 86: p, q, r are three numbers such that the LCM of p and q is q and the LCM of q and r is r. The LCM of p, q and r will be

A) q

B) r – Correct

C) qr

D) pqr

Explanation: If LCM(p,q) = q, then p divides q. If LCM(q,r) = r, then q divides r. So p divides q divides r, hence LCM(p,q,r) = r.

Question 87: A 100 metre long train moving in a uniform speed of 20 m/sec crosses a bridge of length 1 km. The time taken by the train to cross the bridge is

A) 45 seconds

B) 50 seconds

C) 55 seconds – Correct

D) 60 seconds

Explanation: Total distance = 100m + 1000m = 1100m. Time = 1100/20 = 55 seconds.

Question 88: The conversion of 0.0–– 37 in the fractional form is

A) 37/990

B) 37/999

C) 37/100

D) 37/1000 – Correct

Explanation: 0.03737... = 37/1000.

Question 89: The remainder when –76 is divided by 3, is

A) -1

B) 1

C) 2 – Correct

D) -2

Explanation: -76 = -3 × 26 + 2, so remainder is 2.

Question 90: The angles of a quadrilateral are in the ratio of 1 : 3 : 4 : 7. The difference between the largest and the smallest angle is

A) 120°

B) 140°

C) 144° – Correct

D) 145°

Explanation: Let angles be x, 3x, 4x, 7x. Sum = 15x = 360°, so x = 24°. Largest = 7x = 168°, smallest = x = 24°. Difference = 144°.

Question 91: The tenants were asked to throw all recyclable trash into _____

A) the green big plastic bag

B) the big plastic green bag

C) the big green plastic bag– Correct

D) the green plastic big bag

Explanation: Correct adjective order: size + color + material.

Question 92: The process uses an innovative digital technology ______ the products with as many colours as the image contains.

A) that imprints it

B) that imprints

C) that it imprints

D) that imprints on – Correct

Explanation: The technology imprints on the products.

Question 93: I quoted it from _____.

A) Mind

B) Heart

C) Soul

D) Imagination – Correct

Explanation: Common expression "quoted from imagination".

Question 94: The company _______ because of the prolonged strikes and lockouts.

A) went into black

B) went into green

C) went into yellow

D) went into red – Correct

Explanation: Going into red means financial losses.

Question 95: Choose the correct pair of words which are SYNONYMS of each other.

A) Regent – Substitute

B) Monotony – Variety

C) Ancestry – Posterity

D) Precept – Example – Correct

Explanation: Precept means a general rule or principle, which is similar to an example.

Question 96: Choose the correct pair of words which are SYNONYMS of each other.

A) Vacillate – Waver– Correct

B) Oscillate – Stand

C) Undulate – Flow

D) Spiral – Drip

Explanation: Both mean to be indecisive or fluctuate.

Question 97: Choose the correct pair of words which are ANTONYMS of each other.

A) Lazy – Indolent

B) Glide – Drift

C) Entire – Total

D) Obligatory – Voluntary – Correct

Explanation: Obligatory means required, voluntary means optional.

Question 98: Choose the option which will best replace the underlined words in the sentence to make it correct: "She done it to quick so it came out looking rough."

A) done it too quickly

B) did it too quick

C) did it too quickly– Correct

D) did it to quickly

Explanation: Correct grammar: "did" (past tense) and "too quickly" (adverb).

Question 99: Choose the correct option which best explains the meaning of the idiom "To give up the ghost".

A) To exorcise a ghost

B) To die – Correct

C) To be possessed by the devil

D) To worship the devil

Explanation: This idiom means to die or stop working.

Question 100: The application letter and the resume perform :

A) the same task

B) two opposite tasks

C) overlapping tasks

D) two different tasks – Correct

Explanation: While related, they serve different purposes - application letter introduces and motivates, resume provides detailed qualifications.

Disclaimer*: The questions and answers provided here are for educational and practice purposes only. While we have made every effort to ensure accuracy, candidates are advised to cross-check answers with authentic sources, textbooks, or official notifications for complete validity.