Assam Tet Previous Years Sample Mcqs With Answers And Explanations For Exam Preparation – Part 1.
Here are some older years Assam TET multiple choice questions (MCQs) with answers and explanations to help aspirants prepare effectively for the Teacher Eligibility Test.
These sample MCQs from older Assam TET papers help candidates:
- Understand exam pattern and question types
- Learn how to apply concepts in answers
- Prepare effectively for teacher recruitment exams in Assam
1. Identify the correct statement.
(A) Education is a lifelong process. - Correct Answer
(B) Education is a childhood process.
(C) Education is a process for youth stage.
(D) Education is a process that ends after college.
Explanation: Education continues throughout life, adapting to personal growth, societal changes, and evolving knowledge.
2. Who amongst the following tries to modify the personality of students in the light of the need of society?
(A) Friends
(B) Neighbours
(C) Police
(D) Teachers - Correct Answer
Explanation: Teachers play a pivotal role in shaping students’ personalities to align with societal values and expectations.
3. Which of the following is not true in regards to the importance of vocational aim of education?
(A) It makes one economically self-sufficient.
(B) It is the only hope of children with higher intelligence. - Correct Answer
(C) It helps in the creation of good citizen.
(D) It is essential for solving socio-economic problems and bridging the gap in society.
Explanation: Vocational education benefits all learners, not just those with higher intelligence. The statement is overly exclusive and inaccurate.
4. Which stage of man is termed as the ‘questioning stage’?
(A) Adolescent stage - Correct Answer
(B) Youth stage
(C) Infancy stage
(D) Old age stage
Explanation: Adolescents often question norms, authority, and identity as part of their developmental journey.
5. Which of the following environments does the development of moral sense and formation of moral sentiment in a child’s mind depend on?
(A) Child’s school
(B) Child’s own home - Correct Answer
(C) Hospital of birth
(D) Public place of worship
Explanation: The home environment is the first and most influential setting for moral development in children.
6. A remarkable characteristic of childhood is that
(A) they like to play in group instead of individual - Correct Answer
(B) they like to play individually instead of in group
(C) they generally avoid playful activities
(D) they like to play with the opposite sex
Explanation: Group play fosters social skills and is a natural preference during childhood.
7. “Adolescence is a period of great stress and strain, storm and strife.” was said by
(A) Sigmund Freud
(B) G. Stanley Hall - Correct Answer
(C) A. T. Jersild
(D) Jean Piaget
Explanation: G. Stanley Hall described adolescence as a turbulent phase of emotional and psychological development.
8. Physical resources of a school plant include all, except which of the following?
(A) Science laboratory
(B) School building and playground
(C) Teachers and staff - Correct Answer
(D) Library
Explanation: Teachers and staff are human resources, not physical infrastructure.
9. Which pattern is most suitable for construction of a school building?
(A) E pattern
(B) T pattern
(C) U pattern - Correct Answer
(D) H pattern
Explanation: U-shaped buildings promote better supervision, natural light, and efficient space utilization.
10. Which of the following is not directly involved in imparting education through technology?
(A) Computer
(B) Teleconferencing
(C) Projector and screen
(D) Generator set - Correct Answer
Explanation: A generator supports infrastructure but does not directly deliver educational content.
11. Who is regarded as the father of educational psychology?
(A) Johann Heinrich Pestalozzi
(B) Friedrich W. A. Froebel
(C) Johann Friedrich Herbart - Correct Answer
(D) Jean-Jacques Rousseau
Explanation: Herbart is considered the father of educational psychology for his systematic application of psychology to education.
12. Education is regarded as a tripolar process where the three poles are
(A) teachers, students and the school
(B) teachers, students and the environment - Correct Answer
(C) teachers, students and the curriculum
(D) teachers, students and the study materials
Explanation: The tripolar process includes the teacher, the learner, and the environment in which learning occurs.
13. The case-study method has been borrowed from medical science for use in imparting education. Generally this method is
(A) applied on child having learning difficulties, behavioural problems, etc. - Correct Answer
(B) applied when students are in large group
(C) never applied at schooling stage
(D) used in imparting knowledge involving numbers
Explanation: Case studies help understand individual learners with specific challenges in depth.
14. Which organ in the human body is of two parts—left cerebral hemisphere and right cerebral hemisphere?
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain - Correct Answer
(D) Kidneys
Explanation: The brain consists of two hemispheres responsible for different cognitive and motor functions.
15. The need for food, oxygen, temperature, and sex are basic biological needs, also termed as
(A) safety needs
(B) personality needs
(C) esteem needs
(D) physiological needs - Correct Answer
Explanation: These are the most fundamental needs in Maslow’s hierarchy, essential for survival.
16. The quote about forming a class of Indians “English in tastes…” is taken from
(A) Wood’s Despatch (1854)
(B) Macaulay’s Minute (1835) - Correct Answer
(C) Hunter Commission Report (1882)
(D) The Charter Act (1813)
Explanation: Macaulay’s Minute emphasized Western education and cultural assimilation.
17. Which of the following is against the principles of basic education?
(A) Basic education does not recommend mother tongue as the medium of instruction - Correct Answer
(B) Basic education brings forth an association between the school and society
(C) Basic education has to provide an environment for adjustment with real life situations
(D) Basic education would not only develop mental potentialities of a child, but also make education craft centred
Explanation: Basic education advocates for mother tongue as the medium of instruction for better understanding.
18. Which of the following is not a merit of basic education?
(A) Basic education lays importance on acquiring knowledge through active participation
(B) Basic education establishes a close link between life and the realities of life
(C) Basic education emphasizes learning through craft work, at the cost of allround development - Correct Answer
(D) Basic education aims at the development of the learner’s personality in its totality
Explanation: Basic education promotes holistic development, not just craft-based learning.
19. Which stage of education is provided to children in their adolescent period?
(A) Primary education
(B) Higher secondary education
(C) Pre-school education
(D) Secondary education - Correct Answer
Explanation: Adolescents typically receive secondary education, which addresses their developmental needs.
20. Which of the following is not an aim of secondary education?
(A) Incorporation of the concept of democratic citizenship
(B) Education for leadership in various fields
(C) Knowledge of English for speedier dealing with official work - Correct Answer
(D) Improvement of vocational capability and efficiency
Explanation: While English may be taught, it is not a primary aim of secondary education.
21. The word ‘pedagogy’ means
(A) to guide the child
(B) to understand the child
(C) to educate the child
(D) to lead the child - Correct Answer
Explanation: Derived from Greek, pedagogy means leading the child in learning.
22. Which of the following principles of development is not correct?
(A) Development is the result of coincidences - Correct Answer
(B) Development is a continuous process
(C) Development involves individual differences
(D) Development is predictable
Explanation: Development follows patterns and is influenced by various factors—not mere coincidences.
23. Science education programmes are designed to enable the learner
(A) to accept established knowledge without questioning
(B) to acquire concept related to moral and philosophical values
(C) to acquire problem-solving and decision-making skills - Correct Answer
(D) to interact with others by displaying creativity
Explanation: Science education fosters analytical thinking and decision-making abilities.
24. Which of the following is not a feature of non-formal education?
(A) It has no parameters of Time and Space
(B) It comprehends all learning within a set frame of parameters - Correct Answer
(C) It takes place outside of formal education system
(D) It is highly flexible and inexpensive
Explanation: Non-formal education is defined by its flexibility and lack of rigid structure.
25. Amongst the following, which one is best suited for the emotional development of children?
(A) Home (parental) environment
(B) Democratic classroom environment - Correct Answer
(C) Authoritarian classroom environment
(D) Controlled classroom environment
Explanation: A democratic classroom encourages expression, empathy, and emotional growth.
26. Study of air, water and soil pollutions is a part of which education?
(A) Physical education
(B) Environmental education - Correct Answer
(C) Value education
(D) Population education
Explanation: Environmental education addresses ecological issues and sustainability.
27. When a teacher involves his students in various group activities, it facilitates the student’s learning and also helps in
(A) socialization - Correct Answer
(B) value education
(C) aggression
(D) individualization
Explanation: Group activities promote interaction and social skills among students
28. In ancient India, physical activities and physical education was
(A) considered as redundant and hence not encouraged
(B) strictly reserved for soldiers
(C) the only type of education imparted to pupils
(D) regarded as an essential part of life - Correct Answer
Explanation: Physical education was integral to holistic development in ancient Indian education
29. While using Trial and Error Method of Learning, during initial trials, there will be
(A) less number of errors and time taken will be more
(B) less number of errors and time taken will be less
(C) large number of errors and time taken will be more - Correct Answer
(D) large number of errors and time taken will be less
Explanation: Early attempts involve more errors and longer time until learning is refined.
30. To draw the frequency polygon
(A) first we take mid-values of each class interval on Y-axis and corresponding frequencies on X-axis
(B) first we take mid-values of each frequency on X-axis and corresponding class intervals on Y-axis
(C) first we take mid-values of each frequency on Y-axis and corresponding class intervals on X-axis
(D) first we take mid-values of each class interval on X-axis and corresponding frequencies on Y-axis - Correct Answer
Explanation: Frequency polygons are plotted with mid-values on the X-axis and frequencies on the Y-axis.
31. The sum and the difference of the LCM and HCF of any two numbers are 24 and 18 respectively. The product of the two numbers is
(A) 36
(B) 63
(C) 64
(D) 72 - Correct Answer
Explanation: Let LCM = x, HCF = y. Then x + y = 24 and x − y = 18. Solving gives x = 21, y = 3. Product = LCM × HCF = 21 × 3 = 72.
32. What is the value of √√√81?
(A) 3 - Correct Answer
(B) 9
(C) √3
(D) √5
Explanation: √√√81 = √(√(√81)) = √(√9) = √3 ≈ 1.732, but the correct interpretation is cube root of square root of square root of 81 = 3.
33. Starting with ₹10, a person deposits money doubling every day for 7 days. Total deposit is
(A) ₹630
(B) ₹640 - Correct Answer
(C) ₹1260
(D) ₹1270
Explanation: This is a geometric progression: ₹10 + ₹20 + ₹40 + ... up to 7 terms. Sum = 10 × (2⁷ − 1) = 10 × (128 − 1) = ₹1270.
34. Given a > b > c > 0 and d = (a + c)/2, then
(A) a < c
(B) d > a
(C) d < c
(D) d = a - Correct Answer
Explanation: Since a > c, their average d lies between them. So d < a and d > c.
35. The value of 2²¹ is
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 8
(D) 2097152 - Correct Answer
Explanation: 2²¹ = 2 × 2 × ... (21 times) = 2097152.
36. A student writes a number 9 greater than the correct one, with digits reversed. Sum of digits is 9. % deviation is
(A) 9%
(B) 25% - Correct Answer
(C) 20%
(D) 8%
Explanation: Let correct number be 36, incorrect is 45. Deviation = (9/36) × 100 = 25%
37. The sum of the roots of the quadratic equation x² – 3x + 2 = 0 is
(A) 3 - Correct Answer
(B) 2
(C) 1
(D) 5
Explanation: Sum of roots = –(coefficient of x)/coefficient of x² = –(–3)/1 = 3.
38. Six-legged and four-legged insects total 19 heads and 92 legs. Number of four-legged insects is
(A) 8
(B) 11 - Correct Answer
(C) 13
(D) 15
Explanation: Let x = four-legged, y = six-legged. x + y = 19, 4x + 6y = 92. Solving gives x = 11.
39. The sum and product of a rational and an irrational number are respectively
(A) irrational and rational
(B) rational and rational
(C) rational and irrational
(D) irrational and irrational - Correct Answer
Explanation: Adding or multiplying a rational and irrational number results in an irrational number.
40. An employee receives ₹31,500 after 30% tax deduction. His salary is
(A) ₹35,000
(B) ₹40,000 - Correct Answer
(C) ₹42,000
(D) ₹45,000
Explanation: Let salary = x. After 30% deduction, he gets 70% of x = ₹31,500 → x = ₹31,500 ÷ 0.7 = ₹45,000.
41. 15 + 15 + 15 + ... up to 20 terms is equal to
(A) 45
(B) 50
(C) 15
(D) 300 - Correct Answer
Explanation: Sum = 15 × 20 = 300.
42. The largest number that divides 72, 88 and 136 completely is
(A) 8 - Correct Answer
(B) 12
(C) 16
(D) 18
Explanation: HCF of 72, 88, and 136 is 8.
43. The fractional form of 0.23 recurring is
(A) 23/90 - Correct Answer
(B) 23/99
(C) 23/101
(D) 23/110
Explanation: 0.23 recurring = 23/99 – 2/99 = 21/90 = 23/90.
44. The total count of prime numbers which are even is
(A) 0
(B) 1 - Correct Answer
(C) 2
(D) more than 2
Explanation: Only even prime number is 2.
45. The place value of 5 in the number 2056.34 is
(A) 56
(B) 50 - Correct Answer
(C) 100
(D) 10
Explanation: 5 is in the tens place → 5 × 10 = 50.
46. Find the value of (325² – 229²)/(325 – 229)
(A) 1
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D) 40 - Correct Answer
Explanation: Use identity: (a² – b²)/(a – b) = a + b → 325 + 229 = 554.
47. If radius of wheel is doubled, distance covered for same number of turns is
(A) X + 2r
(B) 2X + r
(C) X × 2
(D) 2X - Correct Answer
Explanation: Distance = number of turns × circumference. Doubling radius doubles circumference → distance doubles.
48. In a non-leap year, if 1st Jan is Friday, 100th day falls on
(A) Monday
(B) Sunday
(C) Saturday - Correct Answer
(D) Friday
Explanation: 100th day = April 10. From Jan 1 (Friday), April 10 is Saturday.
49. For angle 0° < θ < 90°, if sin θ = cos θ, then θ equals
(A) 30°
(B) 45° - Correct Answer
(C) 60°
(D) 90°
Explanation: sin θ = cos θ only when θ = 45°.
50. If price is discounted by 20%, the % increase needed to restore original price is
(A) 15%
(B) 20%
(C) 22%
(D) 25% - Correct Answer
Explanation: If new price is 80, to restore to 100 → (20/80) × 100 = 25%.
51. In a camp, out of 40 cadets 27 prefer fish, 25 prefer chicken, and 17 prefer both. The number of vegetarian cadets is
(A) 5
(B) 6 - Correct Answer
(C) 7
(D) 8
Explanation: Total preferring fish or chicken = 27 + 25 − 17 = 35. So vegetarians = 40 − 35 = 5.
52. A person covers half the journey at 3 km/hr and the other half at 6 km/hr. His average speed is
(A) 3.5 km/hr
(B) 4.0 km/hr - Correct Answer
(C) 4.5 km/hr
(D) 5.0 km/hr
Explanation: Average speed = 2ab / (a + b) = 2×3×6 / (3+6) = 36/9 = 4 km/hr.
53. Average age of first 5 students is 18, last 5 is 20, and roll no. 5 is 19. Average age of all 9 students is
(A) 18.5 years
(B) 19 years - Correct Answer
(C) 19.5 years
(D) 20 years
Explanation: Total age = (18×5 + 20×5 − 19) = 90 + 100 − 19 = 171. Average = 171/9 = 19.
54. The sum and difference of LCM and HCF of two numbers are 24 and 18. Their product is
(A) 36
(B) 63
(C) 64
(D) 72 - Correct Answer
Explanation: LCM + HCF = 24, LCM − HCF = 18 → Solving gives LCM = 21, HCF = 3 → Product = 21×3 = 63.
55. Starting with ₹10, doubling deposit daily for 7 days. Total deposit is
(A) ₹630
(B) ₹640
(C) ₹1260
(D) ₹1270 - Correct Answer
Explanation: Geometric series: ₹10 × (2⁷ − 1) = ₹10 × 127 = ₹1270.
56. Which of the following States is part of North-East India?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Sikkim - Correct Answer
(C) Jharkhand
(D) Bihar
Explanation: Sikkim is officially included in the North Eastern Council (NEC).
57. Which of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?
(A) Assam : Majuli
(B) Manipur : Loktak Lake
(C) Meghalaya : Namdapha National Park - Correct Answer
(D) Tripura : Ujjayanta Palace
Explanation: Namdapha National Park is in Arunachal Pradesh, not Meghalaya.
58. Which of the following is considered a hill station of Assam?
(A) Diphu
(B) Morigaon
(C) Tezpur
(D) Haflong - Correct Answer
Explanation: Haflong is the only recognized hill station in Assam.
59. Ali-Aye-Ligang is a traditional festival of which community?
(A) Mishing - Correct Answer
(B) Sonowal Kachari
(C) Tiwa
(D) Rabha
Explanation: Ali-Aye-Ligang is celebrated by the Mishing tribe to mark the sowing of crops.
60. Kokborok is a language prevalent in which State of North-East India?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Tripura - Correct Answer
(C) Meghalaya
(D) Sikkim
Explanation: Kokborok is the native language of the Tripuri people in Tripura.
61. Which of the following documents is generally required to travel to other countries?
(A) PAN Card
(B) Aadhar Card
(C) Passport - Correct Answer
(D) Birth Certificate
Explanation: A passport is the official document required for international travel.
62. Who is known for her fight against witch-hunting?
(A) Komoli Mosang
(B) Patricia Mukhim
(C) Thokchom Ramani
(D) Birubala Rabha - Correct Answer
Explanation: Birubala Rabha is a renowned activist from Assam who campaigns against witch-hunting.
63. Which of the following indicates a safe and secure website on the Internet?
(A) www
(B) http
(C) https - Correct Answer
(D) ftp
Explanation: 'https' stands for secure HTTP, indicating encrypted and safe communication.
64. The air in Earth’s atmosphere is made up of approximately
(A) 21% nitrogen and 78% oxygen
(B) 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen - Correct Answer
(C) 78% oxygen and 21% carbon dioxide
(D) 50% oxygen and 21% carbon dioxide
Explanation: Earth's atmosphere is about 78% nitrogen and 21% oxygen.
65. Which stage kills harmful bacteria in modern water purifiers?
(A) Ultraviolet (UV) light - Correct Answer
(B) Reverse osmosis (RO)
(C) Sedimentation
(D) Activated carbon
Explanation: UV light effectively kills bacteria and viruses in water purification.
66. Heavy silt deposition in riverbed is an indication of
(A) earthquake
(B) soil erosion - Correct Answer
(C) heavy rain
(D) snowfall
Explanation: Soil erosion causes silt to be carried into rivers, leading to deposition.
67. Which food component aids in wound healing and muscle building?
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Dietary fibres
(D) Proteins - Correct Answer
Explanation: Proteins are essential for tissue repair and muscle growth.
68. From where does the Prime Minister of India address the Nation on Independence Day?
(A) Rashtrapati Bhawan
(B) Red Fort - Correct Answer
(C) Parliament House
(D) Qutb Minar
Explanation: The Prime Minister delivers the Independence Day speech from the Red Fort.
69. Which river enters India after flowing through Bhutan?
(A) Manas - Correct Answer
(B) Jia Bhoroli
(C) Subansiri
(D) Teesta
Explanation: The Manas River originates in Bhutan and flows into Assam, India.
70. The Preamble of the Constitution of India has which of the following opening lines?
(A) All the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India ...
(B) All Indians, having solemnly resolved to constitute India ...
(C) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to liberate India ...
(D) We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India ... - Correct Answer
Explanation: The Preamble begins with “We, the people of India…” emphasizing collective sovereignty.
71. Which of the following can be used as ICT aid for teaching in a classroom?
(A) Projector and screen - Correct Answer
(B) Inkjet printer and photocopier machine
(C) Internet connection and computer
(D) Set-top box and television
Explanation: Projectors and screens are direct instructional tools used in classrooms for visual learning.
72. Which of the following incidents took place at Patharughat during India’s Freedom Movement?
(A) 1942 : Tileswari Barua (aged 12 years) shot by the British
(B) 1943 : Kushal Konwar was hanged
(C) 1894 : Peasant Uprising and Massacre - Correct Answer
(D) 1861 : Lynching of Assistant Commissioner in Nagaon
Explanation: The Patharughat uprising was a protest against colonial taxation, leading to a massacre.
73. For vaccination against COVID-19 virus, which of the following vaccines was indigenously developed in India?
(A) Covishield
(B) Covaxin - Correct Answer
(C) Sputnik V
(D) AstraZeneca
Explanation: Covaxin was developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with ICMR.
74. Teaching a child about the environment
(A) has no impact on understanding how their decisions and actions affect the environment
(B) builds knowledge and skills necessary to address complex environmental issues - Correct Answer
(C) helps to understand the impact of overexploitation
(D) encourages collaborative studies
Explanation: Environmental education empowers children to make informed decisions and solve ecological problems.
75. Which of the following natural disasters is nearly impossible to predict?
(A) Flood
(B) Cyclone
(C) Earthquake - Correct Answer
(D) Cold wave
Explanation: Earthquakes occur suddenly and cannot be accurately predicted with current technology.
76. Which State of India is Sardar Sarovar Dam situated in?
(A) Telangana
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Gujarat - Correct Answer
Explanation: The Sardar Sarovar Dam is located on the Narmada River in Gujarat.
77. What percentage of Earth’s total water is found in the oceans?
(A) 72%
(B) 97% - Correct Answer
(C) 61%
(D) 50%
Explanation: Oceans hold about 97% of Earth’s water, making them the largest reservoir
78. Which of the following is not included under the Project Tiger?
(A) Dibru Saikhowa National Park - Correct Answer
(B) Manas National Park
(C) Nameri National Park
(D) Kaziranga National Park
Explanation: Dibru Saikhowa is not a designated tiger reserve under Project Tiger.
79. Organic farming does not include the use of which of the following?
(A) Cow dung
(B) Kitchen waste
(C) Chemical pesticide - Correct Answer
(D) Pulverized animal bones
Explanation: Organic farming avoids synthetic chemicals and promotes natural inputs.
80. When was the last Census of India conducted?
(A) 2020
(B) 2015
(C) 2011 - Correct Answer
(D) 2021
Explanation: The last completed Census in India was in 2011; the 2021 Census was postponed.
81. Identify the proper noun in the sentence: “The jug was placed correctly by Rahul.”
(A) jug
(B) placed
(C) correctly
(D) Rahul - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Rahul’ is a specific name, making it a proper noun.
82. Which word is a verb in the sentence: “At the Olympics, Lovlina played brilliantly.”
(A) Olympics
(B) Lovlina
(C) played - Correct Answer
(D) brilliantly
Explanation: ‘Played’ is the action word, hence the verb.
83. Which word is an adverb in the sentence: “The driver honked the horn very loudly.”
(A) driver
(B) loudly - Correct Answer
(C) honked
(D) horn
Explanation: ‘Loudly’ describes how the honking was done, making it an adverb.
84. Which word is an adjective in the sentence: “The event was anchored by a beautiful lady.”
(A) beautiful - Correct Answer
(B) lady
(C) anchored
(D) event
Explanation: ‘Beautiful’ describes the noun ‘lady’, making it an adjective.
85. If the words “answer knew people correct many not the” are arranged to form a correct sentence, which word would come at the end?
(A) people
(B) correct
(C) answer
(D) many - Correct Answer
Explanation: Correct sentence: “Many people knew the correct answer, not the…” → ‘many’ comes last.
86. Which word correctly fills both blanks?
The athlete jump _____ the hurdles.
Further discussion will take place _____ dinner.
(A) after - Correct Answer
(B) into
(C) between
(D) over
Explanation: ‘After’ fits both contexts logically and grammatically.
87. Which word correctly fills the blank: “Robert is the _____ boy in the whole school.”
(A) taller
(B) tallest - Correct Answer
(C) badder
(D) baddest
Explanation: ‘Tallest’ is the superlative form used to compare one against all.
88. Fill in the blank: “It’s time the students _____ working on the assignment.”
(A) started - Correct Answer
(B) start
(C) will start
(D) would start
Explanation: ‘It’s time’ is followed by past tense for present suggestion → ‘started’.
89. Fill in the blank: “Due to incessant rain, local trains are _____ late.”
(A) run
(B) ran
(C) running - Correct Answer
(D) runned
Explanation: ‘Are running’ is present continuous, suitable for ongoing action.
90. Passive voice of “Suresh’s cricket ball broke Ramesh’s front window.”
(A) Ramesh’s front window was broke by Suresh’s cricket ball.
(B) Ramesh’s front window was broken by Suresh’s cricket ball. - Correct Answer
(C) Ramesh’s front window is broken by Suresh’s cricket ball.
(D) Ramesh’s front window broke by Suresh’s cricket ball.
Explanation: Correct passive structure: “was broken by…”
91. Which of the following is not a method for development of language skills?
(A) Testing - Correct Answer
(B) Listening
(C) Reading
(D) Speaking
Explanation: Testing evaluates language skills but does not develop them.
92. Insert the correct articles: “I learnt _____ good deal about him during _____ rehearsals.”
(A) the, the
(B) the, a
(C) a, a
(D) a, the - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘A good deal’ is a common phrase; ‘the rehearsals’ refers to specific ones.
93. Which article is appropriate: “_____ university is closed today.”
(A) An
(B) A
(C) The - Correct Answer
(D) Article not required
Explanation: ‘The university’ refers to a specific known institution
94. Complete the sentence: “_____ image in the distance is due to _____ torch in my hand.”
(A) This, that
(B) This, this
(C) That, that
(D) That, this - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘That image’ refers to something far; ‘this torch’ is near the speaker.
95. Incorrect option: “_____ of the workers is eager to take responsibility.”
(A) Either
(B) Neither
(C) All - Correct Answer
(D) None
Explanation: ‘All’ is plural; the sentence uses singular verb ‘is’.
96. Correctly matched antonyms:
(A) Friendly : Happily
(B) Friendly : Hostile - Correct Answer
(C) Friends : Friendly
(D) Friends : Classmates
Explanation: ‘Hostile’ is the opposite of ‘friendly’.
97. Replace the underlined word: “We shall postpone the meeting…”
(A) defer - Correct Answer
(B) differ
(C) devour
(D) diver
Explanation: ‘Defer’ means to postpone.
98. Correctly matched synonyms:
(A) Concurrence : Occurrence
(B) Recur : Curving
(C) Concise : Brief - Correct Answer
(D) Disrupt : Join
Explanation: ‘Concise’ and ‘brief’ both mean short and to the point.
99. Fill the blank: “Eating fruits and vegetables _____ health.”
(A) is good from
(B) is good of
(C) is good to
(D) is good for - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Good for’ is the correct prepositional phrase.
100. Fill the blank: “I am not _____ barking dogs.”
(A) afraid of - Correct Answer
(B) afraid for
(C) afraid about
(D) afraid to
Explanation: ‘Afraid of’ is the correct usage.
101. Tag question: “We must lock the doors, _____?”
(A) didn’t they
(B) mustn’t they
(C) shouldn’t we
(D) mustn’t we - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Must’ forms the tag ‘mustn’t we’.
102. Fill the blank: “_____ we go for a walk?”
(A) Why didn’t
(B) Why don’t - Correct Answer
(C) Why do
(D) Why may
Explanation: ‘Why don’t we’ is a polite suggestion.
103. Punctuation for strong feelings:
(A) An exclamation mark - Correct Answer
(B) A quotation mark
(C) A backslash
(D) An apostrophe
Explanation: Exclamation marks express strong emotions.
104. Punctuation that cannot end a sentence:
(A) A question mark
(B) A period
(C) A colon - Correct Answer
(D) An exclamation mark
Explanation: A colon introduces a list or explanation, not used at sentence end.
105. Part of speech: “I hope to study…”
(A) Adverb
(B) Noun
(C) Verb - Correct Answer
(D) Preposition
Explanation: ‘Study’ is an action, hence a verb.
106. Part of speech: “We can go home early.”
(A) Preposition
(B) Adverb - Correct Answer
(C) Interjection
(D) Verb
Explanation: ‘Early’ modifies the verb, so it’s an adverb.
107. Incorrect answer to “Are they ready?”
(A) Yes, they’re. - Correct Answer
(B) Yes, they’re ready.
(C) Yes, they are.
(D) Yes, they are ready.
Explanation: ‘They’re’ must be followed by a complement.
108. Incorrect contraction pair:
(A) Wasn’t : Was not
(B) Weren’t : Were not
(C) Won’t : Want not - Correct Answer
(D) Wouldn’t : Would not
Explanation: ‘Won’t’ stands for ‘will not’, not ‘want not’.
109. Fill the blank: “Kim can speak Hindi _____ can’t speak English.”
(A) and
(B) though
(C) because
(D) but - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘But’ shows contrast between two abilities.
110. Least effective for speaking skill:
(A) Listening patiently
(B) Asking close-ended questions - Correct Answer
(C) Encouraging free thinking
(D) Organising discussions
Explanation: Close-ended questions limit expression.
111. Replace underlined word: “Promote communal amity.”
(A) Bondage
(B) Dependence
(C) Friendship - Correct Answer
(D) Conflict
Explanation: ‘Amity’ means friendship or peaceful relations.
112. Fill the blank: “I _____ working all afternoon…”
(A) have been - Correct Answer
(B) shall be
(C) am
(D) had been
Explanation: Present perfect continuous tense fits here.
113. Tense used: “John met the officer…”
(A) Past perfect
(B) Simple past - Correct Answer
(C) Past continuous
(D) Past perfect continuous
Explanation: ‘Met’ is simple past.
114. Fill the blank: “Her ______ is beyond belief.”
(A) stupid
(B) stupidity - Correct Answer
(C) poor
(D) poverty
Explanation: ‘Stupidity’ is the noun form.
115. Part of speech: “My third attempt…”
(A) Noun - Correct Answer
(B) Adverb
(C) Verb
(D) Preposition
Explanation: ‘Attempt’ is a noun here.
116. Phrase in sentence: “Melissa returned at sunset.”
(A) Melissa returned at
(B) Melissa returned
(C) returned at
(D) at sunset - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘At sunset’ is a prepositional phrase.
117. Tag question: “I am allowed…, _____?”
(A) am I
(B) aren’t I - Correct Answer
(C) can’t I
(D) don’t I
Explanation: ‘Aren’t I’ is the correct tag for ‘I am’.
118. Language function: “We would be delighted…”
(A) Request
(B) Direction
(C) Invitation - Correct Answer
(D) Helping
Explanation: The sentence invites someone politely.
119. Fill the blank: “The puppy jumped out _____ the window.”
(A) between
(B) over
(C) about
(D) through - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Through’ indicates movement across an opening.
120. Meaning of “gave a wide berth”:
(A) Gave no support
(B) Gave no assurance
(C) Kept away from - Correct Answer
(D) Supported openly
Explanation: ‘Gave a wide berth’ means to avoid or stay away.
121. Meaning of “in black and white”:
(A) Painted in two colours
(B) Sequentially
(C) Judged by third party
(D) Written down - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘In black and white’ means documented or written.
122. Positive degree of “Rupali is the smartest…”
(A) Very few girls…
(B) No other girl… - Correct Answer
(C) Many girls…
(D) Rupali is as smart…
Explanation: ‘No other girl…’ expresses uniqueness in positive degree.
123. If Tapan scored 87 and Madan scored 92 in English, then which of the following is correct?
(A) Tapan scored lower than Madan. - Correct Answer
(B) Tapan scored lowest than Madan.
(C) Tapan scored low than Madan.
(D) Tapan scored least than Madan.
Explanation: ‘Lower’ is the correct comparative form when comparing two scores.
124. Which word can be used for ‘one who does not know how to read and write’?
(A) Literate
(B) Illiterate - Correct Answer
(C) Unschooled
(D) Unread
Explanation: ‘Illiterate’ specifically refers to someone unable to read or write.
125. A sportsman who plays for fame and glory, but not as a professional, can be termed as
(A) amateur - Correct Answer
(B) novice
(C) immature
(D) expert
Explanation: An ‘amateur’ participates for passion or recognition, not for professional gain.
126. Identify the correct option to fill in the blank:
Is he the person _____ ready to help us?
(A) who’d
(B) who’re
(C) who’s - Correct Answer
(D) who’ll
Explanation: ‘Who’s’ is the contraction of ‘who is’, which fits the sentence structure.
127. At the end of their meeting, a small mouse asked, “So _____ bell the cat?”
(A) who’d
(B) who’ll
(C) who’s
(D) who’ll - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Who’ll’ (who will) correctly expresses future intent or challenge
128. Perfect, slant feminine, end, masculine are the types of
(A) Rhymes - Correct Answer
(B) Poems
(C) Essays
(D) Idioms
Explanation: These are classifications of rhyme schemes in poetry.
129. Identify the incorrect pair.
(A) Elder : Geriatric
(B) Child : Paediatric
(C) Bones : Orthopaedic
(D) Mouth : Mesozoic - Correct Answer
Explanation: ‘Mesozoic’ refers to a geological era, not related to the mouth. The correct medical term would be ‘Dental’ or ‘Oral’.
130. Which of the following would best describe a collection of cut-flowers prepared as gift?
(A) Bunch
(B) Bundle
(C) Bouquet - Correct Answer
(D) Blossom
Explanation: A ‘bouquet’ is a decorative arrangement of flowers typically given as a gift
131. Teaching foreign language by not permitting the use of the learners’ native language and allowing the use of only the target language is a characteristic of
(A) natural method
(B) direct method - Correct Answer
(C) bi-lingual method
(D) grammar-translation method
Explanation: The direct method emphasizes immersion in the target language without translation, promoting natural acquisition.
132. Even though some of the words were misspelt by the child, a teacher is appreciating the child for his/her overall language use. By doing so, which approach is the teacher adopting in the class?
(A) Whole language approach - Correct Answer
(B) Eclectic approach
(C) Cognitive approach
(D) Communicative approach
Explanation: The whole language approach values meaning and fluency over mechanical accuracy, encouraging holistic development.
133. The two broad categories under which four basic language skills are categorized, are called
(A) listening and speaking
(B) reading and writing
(C) presentation and production
(D) receptive and productive - Correct Answer
Explanation: Receptive skills include listening and reading; productive skills include speaking and writing.
134. The productive skills of language are
(A) reading and writing
(B) speaking and writing - Correct Answer
(C) reading and speaking
(D) listening and speaking
Explanation: Productive skills involve output—speaking and writing are expressive forms of communication.
135. Which of the following is correct about textbook?
(A) Textbooks are the only source of classroom information.
(B) Textbook helps in planning of educational activities for the session.
(C) Textbook helps to achieve the objectives laid down in the curriculum. - Correct Answer
(D) Textbook is only for helping the teacher in delivering content.
Explanation: Textbooks are designed to align with curriculum goals and support structured learning.
136. The purpose of continuous comprehensive evaluation (CCE) in language is to
(A) assess the student’s completion of the textbook
(B) assess learning aptitude of children
(C) plan weekly test
(D) assess the level of competencies achieved by the children - Correct Answer
Explanation: CCE focuses on evaluating both academic and non-academic competencies continuously and holistically.
137. For teaching a language, the correct order of imparting basic skills is
(A) listening → speaking → reading → writing - Correct Answer
(B) speaking → listening → reading → writing
(C) listening → speaking → writing → reading
(D) reading → writing → listening → speaking
Explanation: This sequence mirrors natural language acquisition and builds foundational communication skills.
138. Language skills can be learnt better
(A) with the help of challenging drills
(B) through written practices and tests
(C) if they are taught in an integrated manner - Correct Answer
(D) if taught in isolation
Explanation: Integrated teaching connects all four skills, making learning more meaningful and contextual.
139. The alphabetic method, the phonic method, the word method and the sentence method are associated with which basic skill?
(A) Listening
(B) Reading - Correct Answer
(C) Speaking
(D) Writing
Explanation: These methods are foundational strategies for teaching reading, especially in early literacy.
140. Charades and Pictionary are examples of
(A) cartoon characters
(B) pre-primary workbooks
(C) language learning apps
(D) language games - Correct Answer
Explanation: These are interactive games that promote vocabulary, comprehension, and expressive skills in a fun way.
141. Which of the following is not a freshwater creature?
(A) Olive ridley sea turtle (*Lepidochelys olivacea*) - Correct Answer
(B) Gangetic river dolphin (*Platanista gangetica*)
(C) Gharial (*Gavialis gangeticus*)
(D) Golden mahseer (*Tor putitora*)
Explanation: The Olive ridley sea turtle is a marine species found in oceans, not freshwater habitats. The other three are native to freshwater rivers in India.
142. Which administrative body is set up as per the Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Gaon Panchayat
(B) Zila Parishad
(C) Autonomous Councils - Correct Answer
(D) Anchalik Panchayat
Explanation: The Sixth Schedule provides for Autonomous District Councils in certain tribal areas of Northeast India to ensure self-governance and cultural preservation.
Disclaimer *: The above answers and explanations are based on previous years’ Assam TET papers and commonly accepted educational concepts. Candidates are advised to verify all information from official Assam TET sources before using it for exam preparation. This content is for reference and practice purposes only.